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previous fms question paper
2A
PREVIOUS FMS QUESTION PAPER
FMS Dec 2010
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SECTION I
English Comprehension(50 questions)
Directions for Question Nos. 1 to 15: Read the
following passage-1 and answer the questions given at
the end of the passage. The answers should be based
either on the author's views or inferences drawn from
the given passage.
Passage – 1
The fairness exercise, thus structured, is aimed at
identifying appropriate principles that would
determine the choice of just institutions needed for the
basic structure of a society. Rawls identifies some very
specific principles of justice (to be discussed presently),
and makes the strong claim that these principles would
be the unanimous choice that would emerge from the
political conception of justice as fairness. He argues
that since these principles would be chosen by all in the
original position, with its primordial equality, they
constitute the appropriate ‘political conception’ of
justice, and that people growing up in a well-ordered
society governed by these principles would have good
reason to affirm a sense of justice based on them
(irrespective of each person’s particular conception of a
‘good life’ and personal ‘comprehensive’ priorities). So
the unanimous choice of these principles of justice does
quite a bit of work in the Rawlsian system, which
includes the choice of institutions for the basic
structure of the society, as well as the determination of
a political conception of justice, which Rawls presumes
will correspondingly influence individual behaviours in
conformity with that shared conception.
The choice of basic principles of justice is the first act in
Rawls’s multi-staged unfolding of social justice. This
first stage leads to the next, ‘constitutional’, stage in
which actual institutions are selected in line with the
chosen principle of justice, taking note of the conditions
of each particular society. The working of these
institutions, in turn, leads to further social decisions at
later stages in the Rawlsian system, for example
through appropriate legislation (in what Rawls calls
‘the legislative stage’). The imagined sequence moves
forward step by step on firmly specified lines, with an
elaborately characterized unfolding of completely just
societal arrangements.
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The whole process of this unfolding is based on the
emergence of what he describes as ‘two principles of
justice’ in the first stage that influence everything else
that happens in the Rawlsian sequence. I have to
express considerable scepticism about Rawls’s highly
specific claim about the unique choice, in the original
position, of one particular set of principles for just
institutions, needed for a fully just society. There are
genuinely plural, and sometimes conflicting, general
concerns that bear on our understanding of justice.
They need not differ in the convenient way– convenient
for choice that is- that only one such set of principles
really incorporates impartiality and fairness, while the
others do not. Many of them share features of being
unbiased and dispassionate, and represent maxims that
their proponents can ‘will to be a universal law’ (to use
Immanuel Kant’s famous requirement).
Indeed, plurality of unbiased principles can, I would
argue, reflect the fact that impartiality can take many
different forms and have quite distinct manifestations.
For example, in the illustration with the competing
claims of three children over a flute, considered in the
Introduction, underlying each child’s claim there is a
general theory of how to treat people in an unbiased
and impartial way, focusing, respectively, on effective
use and utility, economic equity and distributional
fairness, and the entitlement to the fruits of one’s
unaided efforts. Their arguments are perfectly general,
and their respective reasoning about the nature of a
just society reflects different basic ideas that can each
be defended impartially (rather than being parasitic on
vested interests). And if there is no unique emergence
of a given set of principles of justice that together
identify the institutions needed for the basic structure
of the society, then the entire procedure of ‘justice as
fairness’, as developed in Rawls’s classic theory, would
be hard to use.
As was discussed in the Introduction, Rawls’s basic
claim of the emergence of a unique set of principles of
justice in the original position (discussed and defended
in his A Theory of Justice) is considerably softened and
qualified in his later writings. Indeed, in his Justice as
Fairness: A Restatement, Rawls notes that ‘there are
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indefinitely many considerations that may be appealed
to in the original position and each alternative
conception of justice is favoured by some consideration
and disfavoured by others’, and also that ‘the balance of
reasons itself rests on judgment, though judgment
informed and guided by reasoning’. When Rawls goes
on to concede that ‘the ideal cannot be fully attained’,
his reference is to his ideal theory of justice as fairness.
However, there need not be anything particularly ‘nonideal’ in a theory of justice that makes room for
surviving disagreement and dissent on some issues,
while focusing on many solid conclusions that would
forcefully emerge from reasoned agreement on the
demands of justice.
What is clear, however, is that if Rawls’s second
thoughts are really saying what they seem to be saying,
then his earlier stage-by-stage theory of justice as
fairness would have to be abandoned. If institutions
have to be set up on the basis of a unique set of
principles of justice emanating from the exercise of
fairness, through the original position, then the absence
of such a unique emergence cannot but hit at the very
root of the theory. There is a real tension here within
Rawls’s own reasoning over the years. He does not
abandon, at least explicitly, his theory of justice as
fairness, and yet he seems to accept that there are
incurable problems in getting a unanimous agreement
on one set of principles of justice in the original
position, which cannot but have devastating
implications for his theory of 'justice as fairness’. My
own inclination is to think that Rawls’s original theory
played a huge part in making us understand various
aspects of the idea of justice, and even if that theory has
to be abandoned– for which there is, I would argue, a
strong case- a great deal of the enlightenment from
Rawls’s pioneering contribution would remain and
continue to enrich political philosophy. It is possible to
be at once deeply appreciated and seriously critical of a
theory, and nothing would make me happier than
having Rawls’s own company, if that were to come, in
this ‘dual’ assessment of the theory of justice as
fairness.
(2) Principles of justice are politically derived
(3) Both the above
(4) None of the above
2. Which of the following best fits the title of the
passage?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
3. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement?
(1) Suitable principles need to be identified to
determine the choice of just institutions
(2) Just institutions are required for the basic
structure of society
(3) Rawls has identified specific principles of
justice
(4) The author of the passage is in agreement with
the principles of justice identified by Rawls
4. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) Rawls argues that citizens of a society
governed by principles of justice would affirm
a sense of justice based on them
(2) The author of the passage argues that citizens
of a society governed by principles of justice
would affirm a sense of justice based on them
(3) Both Rawls and the author of the passage
argue that citizens of a society governed by
principles of justice would affirm a sense of
justice based on them
(4) Neither Rawls nor the author of the passage
argues that citizens of a society governed by
principles of justice would affirm a sense of
justice based on them
5. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) The author of the passage argues that
principles of justice are chosen by all in the
original position
(2) Rawls argues that principles of justice are
chosen by all in the original position
1. According to Rawls,
(1) Principles of justice are the unanimous choice
of a just society
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The Idea of Justice
Unbiased Principles
Justice as Fairness
The Basic Structure of Society
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(3) Both the author of the passage and Rawls
argue that principles of justice are chosen by
all in the original position
(4) Neither the author of the passage nor Rawls
argue that principles of justice are chosen by
all in the original position
(4) None of the above
10. According to the passage,
(1) The basic principles of justice is the first stage
of a multistaged process of social justice
developed by Rawls.
(2) The basic principles of justice is the first stage
of a multistaged process of social justice
developed by the author of the passage
(3) Rawls’s concept of social justice is confined to
the basic principles of justice
(4) Rawls’s concept of social justice developed as a
two-stage process
6. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement?
(1) The author of the passage believes that
principles of justice constitute the political
concept of justice
(2) Rawls believes that principles of justice
constitute the political concept of justice
(3) Both the author of the passage and Rawls
believe that principles of justice constitute the
political concept of justice
(4) Neither the author of the passage nor Rawls
believe that principles of justice constitute the
political concept of justice
11. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) The author of the passage does not agree that
impartiality can take many different forms
(2) Rawls thinks that impartiality can take many
different forms
(3) The author of the passage believes that
impartiality can take many different forms
(4) None of the above
7. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) Rawls rejects the theory of justice as fairness
(2) The author of the passage rejects the theory of
justice as fairness
(3) Neither the author of the passage nor Rawls
rejects the theory of justice as fairness
(4) All of the above
12. According to the passage,
(1) The author of the passage is in agreement with
Rawls’s claim that there exists one particular
set of principles for just institutions
(2) The author of the passage is not in agreement
with Rawls’s claim that there exists one
particular set of principles for just institutions
(3) Neither of the above
(4) Both (1) and (2) above
8. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement?
(1) The author of ‘Justice as Fairness: A
Restatement’ is not the author of the passage
(2) Rawls is the author of ‘Justice as Fairness: A
Restatement’
(3) Rawls has not changed or modified his original
position on the principles of justice.
(4) None of the above
13. According to the passage,
(1) Rawls believes that there are several concerns
that may lead to an understanding of justice
(2) The author of the passage believes that there
are several concerns that may lead to an
understanding of justice
(3) The author of the passage believes that one set
of principles lead to our understanding of
justice
9. According to the passage,
(1) Rawls’s multistage theory of justice as fairness
is not tenable
(2) Rawls’s multistage theory of justice as fairness
is very sound
(3) The author of the passage reinforces Rawls’s
multistage theory of justice as fairness.
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(4) Rawls believes that there are conflicting
concerns that may lead to an understanding of
justice
14. According to the passage,
(1) There is no theory of how to ensure justice in
an unbiased and impartial way
(2) One cannot treat people with economic equity
and distributional fairness
(3) There is a general theory of economic equity
and distributional fairness
(4) None of the above
15. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) Rawls suggests the theory ‘justice as fairness’
(2) The author of the passage suggests the theory
‘justice as fairness’
(3) Both Rawls and the author of the passage
suggest the theory ‘justice as fairness’
(4) None of the above
Directions for Questions Nos. 16 to 26: Read the
following passage - 2 and answer the questions given at
the end of the passage. The answers should be based
either on the author’s views or inferences drawn from
the given passage.
Passage – 2
Diwali saw the last great burst of the autumnal
exuberance unleashed a month earlier at Dusshera.
Within a month of the last Diwali rocket vanishing into
the Delhi skies, the city seemed to curl its tail between
its legs and disappear into a state of semi-hibernation
for the duration of the cold season. The brief but bitter
Delhi winter came as suddenly as an undertaker: darkclad, soft-footed, unannounced and unwelcome. There
is no snow in Delhi – the winters are too dry – but,
white winds from the snow peaks still sweep down the
slopes, freezing the plains of the Punjab and shattering
the brittle buds, before raking through the streets of
the capital and brushing the narrow Delhi alleyways
clear of people. The Delhi–wallahs withdraw into
themselves. They lift up their knees to their chins and
pull their heavy Kashmiri blankets tightly around. Over
their heads they wind thick woollen mufflers. If you
look into the dark of the roadside restaurant-shacks
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you see only the whites of their eyes peering out into
the cold.
The sky is grey, the air is grey, and the dull, cold
greyness seeps into the ground, the stones and the
buildings. The only colours are the red and yellow silk
flags flying over the new Muslim graves in Nizamuddin.
The trees in the gardens stand shrouded in a thin wrap
of mist. In Old Delhi, the goats fattening for slaughter
huddle together under sackcloth coats; some are given
old cardigans to wear, with their front legs fitted
through the sleeves. Winter smoke winds slowly out of
the chimneys; bonfires crackle outside the jhuggi
clusters. As you look through the windowpanes you can
see winter lying curled like a cobra across the land.
Olivia now spent her mornings in the warmth of our
flat; it was too cold and misty to paint until the sun had
reached its zenith at midday. If she ventured out she
would return early, before a sudden dusk brought to a
close the brief winter afternoon. Brisk evenings were
followed by cold nights. We muffled ourselves in our
new shawls – we had not considered packing jerseys or
overcoats when we set off to India – and sat warming
ourselves, in front of the heaters. My reading was
mostly historical. I had become fascinated with that
period of Delhi’s history known as the Twilight. It was
an epoch whose dark melancholy perfectly reflected
the cold, misty scenes outside our own windows.
The Twilight is bounded by two of the greatest
disasters in Delhi’s history: the Persian massacres of
1739 and the equally vicious hangings and killings
which followed the British recapture of Delhi after the
1857 Indian Mutiny. The first massacre took place in
the wake of an unexpected invasion of India by the
Persian ruler, Nadir Shah. At Karnal in the Punjab the
newly-crowned Shah defeated the Mughal army and
advanced rapidly on Delhi. He encamped at the
Shalimar Gardens, five miles north of the city. Having
been invited into Delhi by the nervous populace, Nadir
Shah ordered the massacre after a group of Delhiwallahs attacked and killed 900 of his soldiers in a
bazaar brawl. At the end of a single day’s slaughter 1,
50,000 of the city’s citizens lay dead.
Nadir Shah’s massacre exacerbated the decline of the
Mughal Empire which had been steadily contracting
since the death of Aurangzeb, the last Great Mogul, in
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1707. By the end of the eighteenth century, Delhi, shorn
of the empire which gave it life, had sunk into a state of
impotent dotage. The aristocracy tried to maintain the
life-style and civilization of the empire, but in a mined
and impoverished city raped and violated by a
succession of invaders. The destruction created a mood
conducive to elegy, and the great Urdu writers made
the most of the opportunity. ‘There is no house from
where the jackal’s cry cannot be heard,’ wrote Sauda.
‘The mosques at evening are unlit and deserted. In the
once beautiful gardens, the grass grows waist-high
around fallen pillars and the ruined arches. Not even a
lamp of clay now burns where once the chandeliers
blazed with light…’
On the throne in the Hall of Audience in the 'Qila-iMualla, the Exalted Fort sat the Emperor Shah Alam. He
was a brave, cultured and intelligent old man, still tall
and commanding, his dark complexion offset by a short
white beard. He spoke four languages and maintained a
harem of five hundred women; but for all this, he was
sightless - years before, his eyes had been gouged out
by Ghulam Qadir, an Afghan marauder whom he had
once kept as his catamite. Like some symbol of the city
over which he presided, Shah Alam was a blind
emperor ruling from a ruined palace. At his court, the
elaborate etiquette of Mughal society was scrupulously
‘maintained’; poetry, music and the arts flourished. But
beneath the surface lustre, all was rotten. Servants
prised precious stones from the pietra dura inlay on the
walls to sell in Chandni Chowk. The old court costumes
were threadbare; the plaster was peeling. Mountains of
rubbish accumulated in the city streets and amid the
delicate pavilions of the Exalted Palace. Unable to see
the decay around him, Shah Alam still could not escape
its stench.
With Iris Portal and the Haxby sisters I had heard the
testimonies of the last British in Delhi. Now, in the cold
of early December, I visited the chilly Delhi libraries
searching for the accounts of the first English to
penetrate the city’s walls in the late eighteenth century.
The most detailed of the early descriptions was that
written by Lieutenant William Franklin. Franklin had
been sent to Delhi by the directors of the East India
Company to survey the then unknown heartlands of the
empire of the Great Mogul. Franklin’s account of his
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discoveries, published in Calcutta in the 1795 Asiatic
Researches (the journal of the newly-founded Royal
Asiatic Society) painted a melancholy picture of the
once-great capital. Franklin had approached the city on
horseback from the northwest. His first glimpse was of
a landscape littered with crumbling ruins: ‘The
environs are crowded with the remains of spacious
gardens and the country-houses of the nobility,’ he
wrote in his report. ‘The prospect towards Delhi, as far
as the eye can reach, is covered with the remains of
gardens, pavilions, mosques and burying places.’
16. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Olivia is a painter
Olivia is the author’s neighbour
Olivia is a historian
Olivia is the author of the passage
17. During the winter season in Delhi,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
People largely stay indoors
Most people prefer to walk around the streets
The road side stacks are well-lit
None of the above
18. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) Bright saffron coloured silk flags fly over the
new Muslim graves
(2) Yellow and red silk flags fly over the new
Muslim graves
(3) Yellow and green silk flags fly over the new
Muslim graves
(4) All Muslim graves are covered with black flags
19. According to the passage,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
All the goats wear old cardigans
No goats wear cardigans
All the goats are given new cardigans to wear
Some goats wear old cardigans
20. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) The author of the passage was known to Iris
Portal
(2) The author was not familiar with the Huxley
sisters
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(3) Neither Iris Portal nor the Huxley sisters knew
about the last British in India
(4) The author was not interested in the first
English who entered Delhi
(4) The massacre ordered by Nadir Shah killed
15000 citizens of Delhi
26. According to the passage,
(1) Winter in Delhi is very pleasant
(2) Summer season in Delhi is very pleasant
(3) Both summer and winter seasons are pleasant
in Delhi
(4) Winter season in Delhi is not so pleasant
21. According to the passage,
(1) Twilight is the name of a person
(2) A period in European history is known as
Twilight
(3) A period in Delhi’s history is known as Twilight
(4) None of the above
22. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) The Mughal Empire declined after the death of
Aurangzeb
(2) The Mughal Empire prospered after the death
of Aurangzeb
(3) Nadir Shah helped the prosperity of the
Mughal Empire
(4) By the end of the 18th century, Delhi had
become a very powerful state
23. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) Emperor Shah Alam was an intelligent old man
(2) Emperor Shah Alam was tall and dark
complexioned
(3) Emperor Shah Alam was blind
(4) All of the above
24. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) Emperor Shah Alam followed the etiquette of
Muslim society
(2) Emperor Shah Alam did not care about the
etiquette of Muslim society
(3) Poetry, music and the arts were not part of the
Muslim culture
(4) All of the above
25. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) The invasion of Nadir Shah was anticipated
(2) Nadir Shah invaded Persia
(3) The massacre ordered by Nadir Shah killed
900 soldiers
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Directions for Question Nos. 27 to 36: Read the
following passage – 3 answer the questions given at the
end of the passage. The answers should be based either
on the author’s views or inferences drawn from the
given passage.
Passage – 3
Google headquarters in Mountain View, California, has
a certain Centre feel to it – so many fun space-age toys
to play with, so little time. In one corner is a spinning
globe that emits light beams based on the volume of
people searching on Google. As you would expect, most
of the shafts of light are shooting up from North
America, Europe, Korea, Japan, and coastal China. The
Middle East and Africa remain pretty dark. In another
corner is a screen that shows a sample of what things
people are searching for at that moment, all over the
world. When I was there in 2001, I asked my hosts
what had been the most frequent searches lately. One,
of course, was “sex,” a perennial favourite of Googlers.
Another was “God.” Lots of people searching for Him or
Her. A third was “jobs” – you can’t find enough of those.
And the fourth most searched item around the time of
my visit? I didn’t know whether to laugh or cry :
‘professional wrestling’. The weirdest one, though, is
the Google recipe book, where people just open their
refrigerators, see what ingredients are inside, type
three of them into Google, and see what recipes come
up !
Fortunately, no single word or subject accounts for
more than 1 or 2 percent of all Google searches at any
given time, so no one should get too worried about the
fate of humanity on the basis of Google’s top search
items on any particular day. Indeed, it is the
remarkable diversity of searches going on via Google, in
so many different tongues, that makes the Google
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search engine (and Search engines in general) such
huge flatteners. Never before in the history of the
planet have so many people – on their own – had the
ability to find so much information about so many
things and about so many other people.
it. Let’s imagine a group with a Google iPod one day and
you can tell it to search by voice – that would take care
of people who can’t use a computer- and then [Google
access] just becomes about the rate at which we can get
cheap devices in to people’s hands”.
Said Russian-born Google cofounder Sergey Brin, “If
someone has broadband, dial-up, or access to an
Internet cafe, whether a kid in Cambodia, the university
professor, or me who runs this search engine, all have
the same basic access to overall research information
that anyone has. It is a total equalizer. This is very
different than how I grew up. My best access was some
library, and it did not have all that much stuff, and you
either had to hope for a miracle or search for
something very simple or something very recent. When
Google came along, he added, suddenly that kid had
“universal access” to the information in libraries all
over the world.
How does searching fit into the concept of
collaboration? I call it “informing.” Informing is the
individual’s personal analogue to uploading,
outsourcing, in sourcing, supply chaining, and offshoring. Informing is the ability to build and deploy
your own personal supply chain – a supply chain of
information, knowledge, and entertainment. Informing
is about self-collaboration – becoming your own selfdirected and self-empowered researcher, editor, and
selector of entertainment, without having to go to the
library or the movie theatre or through network
television. Informing is searching for knowledge. It is
about seeking like-minded people and communities.
Google’s phenomenal global popularity, which has
spurred Yahoo! and Microsoft (through its MSN Search)
also to make power searching and informing
prominent features of their Web sites, shows how
hungry people are for this form of collaboration. Google
is now processing roughly one billion searches per day,
up from 150 million just three years ago.
That is certainly Google’s goal – to make easily
available all the world’s knowledge in every language.
And Google hopes that in time, with a PalmPilot or a
cell phone, everyone everywhere will be able to carry
around access to all the world’s knowledge in their
pockets. “Everything” and “everyone” are keywords
that you hear around Google all the time. Indeed, the
official Google history carried on its home page notes
that the name “Google” is a play on the word “googol”;
which is the number represented by the numeral 1
followed by 100 zeros. Google’s use of the term reflects
the company’s mission to organize the immense,
seemingly infinite amount of information available on
the Web, ‘just for you”. What Google’s success reflects is
how much people are interested in having just that – all
the world’s knowledge at their fingertips. There is no
bigger flattener than the idea of making all the world’s
knowledge, or even just a big chunk of it, available to
anyone and everyone, anytime, anywhere.
“We do discriminate only to the degree that if you can’t
use a computer or don’t have access to one, you can’t
use Google, but other than that, if you can type, you can
use Google,” said Google CEO Eric Schmidt. And surely
if the flattening of the world means anything, he added,
it means that “there is no discrimination in accessing
knowledge. Google is now searchable in one hundred
languages, and every time we find another we increase
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The easier and more accurate searching becomes,
added Larry Page, Google’s other cofounder, the more
global Google’s user base becomes, and the more
powerful a flattener it becomes. Every day more and
more people are able to inform themselves in their own
language. Today, said Page “only a third of our searches
are U.S.-based, and less than half are in English.”
Moreover, he added, “as people are searching for more
obscure things, people are publishing more obscure
things,” which drives the flattening effect of informing
even more. All the major search engines have also
recently added the capability for users to search not
only the Web for information but also their own
computer’s hard drive for words or data or e-mail they
know is in there somewhere but have forgotten where.
When you can search your own memory more
efficiently, that is really informing. In late 2004, Google
announced plans to scan the entire contents of both the
University of Michigan and Stanford University
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libraries, making tens of thousands of books available
and searchable online.
In the earliest days of search engines, people were
amazed and delighted to stumble across the
information they sought; eureka moments were
unexpected surprises, said Yahoo!’s cofounder Jerry
Yang. “Today their attitudes are much more
presumptive. They presume that the information
they’re looking for is certainly available and that it’s
just a matter of technologists making it easier to get to,
and in fewer keystrokes,” he said. “The democratization
of information is having a profound impact on society.
Today’s consumers are much more efficient– they can
find information, products, and services, faster
[through search engines] than through traditional
means. They are better informed about issues related
to health, leisure, etc. Small towns are no longer
disadvantaged relative to those with better access to
information. And people have the ability to be better
connected to things that interest them, to quickly and
easily become experts in given subjects and to connect
with others who share their interests."
Google’s founders understood that by the late 1990s
hundreds of thousands of Web pages were being added
to the Internet each day, and that existing search
engines, which tended to search for keywords, could
not keep pace. Brin and Page, who met as Stanford
University students in computer science in 1995,
developed a mathematical formula that ranked a Web
page by how many other Web pages were linked to it,
on the assumption that the more people linked to a
certain page, more important the page. The key
breakthrough that enabled Google to become first
among search engines was its ability to combine its
PageRank technology with an analysis of page content,
which determines which pages are most relevant to the
specific search being conducted. Even though Google
entered the market after other major search players, its
answers were seen by people as more accurate and
relevant to what they were looking for. The fact that
one search engine was just a little better than the
others led a tidal wave of people to switch to it. (Google
now employs scores of mathematicians working on its
search algorithms, in an effort to always keep them one
step more relevant than the competition).
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For some reason, said Brin, “people underestimated the
importance of finding information, as opposed to other
things you would do online. If you are searching for
something like a health issue, you really want to know;
in some cases it is a life-and-death matter. We have
people who search Google for heart-attack symptoms
and then call nine-one-nine.” But sometimes you really
want to inform yourself about something much
simpler.
27. Which of the following is not a correct statement?
(1) Informing is supply chain management
(2) Informing is the ability to build and deploy
your own supply of information
(3) Knowledge makes you self-directed and selfempowered
(4) Knowledge and information reduce inequality
28. According to the passage,
(1) PageRank technology analyses the relevance of
information
(2) Google search does not determine which pages
contain relevant information
(3) Google was the first search player on the web
(4) Yahoo entered the market after Google
29. The author of the passage suggests that most
people use Google to search for:
(1) Jobs
(3) God
(2) Sex
(4) All of the above
30. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) More than 70 percent of people search for God
on Google
(2) Less than 2 percent of people search for God
on Google
(3) More than 50 percent of people search for sex
on Google
(4) About 30 percent of people search for
wrestling on Google
31. According to the author of the passage,
(1) Google has made the world flat
(2) Google has revealed the history of the planet
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(3) Different languages have created Google
engine
(4) Limited information is available on Google
engine
36. According to the passage, most people who search
on Google belong to
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
32. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) Only about 50 percent of Google users belong
to North America
(2) Only 20 percent of Google users belong to
North America
(3) Only 5 percent of Google users belong to North
America
(4) Nearly 33 percent of Google users belong to
North America
33. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) More than half of Google searches are in the
English language
(2) More than half of Google searches are in a NonEnglish language
(3) Most of Google searches are in the English
language
(4) None of the above
34. According to the passage,
(1) In earlier days people were not surprised to
find the information they were searching
(2) Today people do not expect to find the
information they are looking for
(3) Today people are happy to find the
information they are looking for
(4) Today people expect to find the information
they are looking for
35. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) The co-founders of Google were students of
Stanford University
(2) The co-founders of Google were professors of
Stanford University
(3) Larry Page and Jerry Yang were co-founders of
Google
(4) Eric Schmidt and Jerry Yang were co-founders
of Google
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Europe and Korea
Japan and Central Asia
Middle East and Africa
Europe, Korea, Japan and Central Asia
Directions for Question Nos. 37 to 50: Read the
following passage–4 and answer the questions given at
the end of the passage. The answers should be based
either on the author’s views or inferences drawn from
the given passage.
Passage – 4
Another style which is only partially dependent on
situational factors for its effectiveness is the
Pioneering-Innovative management. Like Likert,
Khandwalla preferred to use the expression
‘management’ rather than ‘leadership’, though his
theory could easily be taken for a theory of leadership
styles of top executives. He accepted that the operative
mode of the top management sets the tone for the
lower levels. He therefore administered a
questionnaire to the top level executives of 75 varied
organisations. In addition to other variables, the
responses disclosed a mode of functioning which he
labelled as ‘PI Management.’ PI Management is
characterised by a strong emphasis on attributes such
as (1) Adapting freely to changing circumstances
without concern for past management practices or
traditions; (2) Marketing new and novel products or
services; (3) Acquiring the latest, most sophisticated
plant, machinery and equipment; (4) High return on
investments even if they involve high risk; (5) High
quality and high price orientation in marketing
company’s established products or services; (6)
Innovation and experimentation in every area of
management; (7) Ability to come up with original
solutions and novel ideas; (8) Being a pioneer within
the industry in marketing technologically sophisticated
products and services.
Managements that score high on PI claim to pursue a
business strategy of pioneering, novel, technologically
sophisticated, high quality products and plants. They
seem willing to take necessary risks attendant on this
strategy. Since they seek to be pioneers, they cannot
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afford not to adapt or innovate. Indeed, they try to be
aggressively adaptive and innovative, not merely
technologically but also in various areas of
management. Interestingly enough, the current levels
of PI in organizations are more strongly influenced by
strategic decisions taken in the past than the other way
around. That is, the past Pl has an insignificant effect on
present norms, decisions and managerial functions. For
example, the past policy of recruiting creative
managers at junior levels deliberate efforts to inject
pioneering and innovative practices regarding business
strategies (with reference to diversification,
integration, marketing), operating modes (e.g.
autonomy, accountability, cooperation), and personnel
(e.g. reward and punishment, communication) were
found to have significant effects on the current levels of
Pl; but past PI did not influence any of it. Similarly, past
norms regarding excellence, expertise, dedication and
the lower levels of dependency facilitated current PI
levels, but not the other way around. In sum, PI
management is an outcome rather than a cause of
managerial policies and practices. Furthermore, PI
management is more effective in an environment which
offers opportunities than one which is highly
controlled.
Once PI management becomes operative, it improves
overall performance, the organisation’s growth, public
image as well as adaptability to circumstances improve.
It heightens the achievement and result orientation of
top management and lowers authoritarian norms at
middle management levels. In order to realise the
organisation’s goals, the PI executives seek out a
complex, turbulent but favourable environment. It is
worth noting that past PI is negatively related to the
maintenance of friendly relations with colleagues. PI
‘perhaps temporarily lowers friendship ties at senior
management
levels.’
Relationship
orientation,
particularly primary relationship, is probably not part
of the PI package. Relationship is an offshoot of the
‘affiliative orientation’ which is a business typical of the
traditional style of management. According to
Khandwalla “a traditional top management, wedded to
the status quo, may breed a clubby kind of affiliative,
even somewhat task-oriented, work ethic at the next
level of management, but a ‘politicised’, cliquish,
conflict ridden, low work ethic, passivity prone culture
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at middle-junior management levels. Also, the tenure of
senior managers tends to be long in conservative setups. This may breed a fairly strong, affiliative
orientation among the old timers.” Khandwalla devised
an essentially PI-like strategy for the turnaround
management of sick enterprises.
A few years later, Khandwalla added that it is the
‘humane’ rather than the ‘surgical’ turnaround strategy
which works in the developmental context. The
turnaround and PI styles should be considered as a
whole and integrated model in which the relative
relevance of each depends on the health of the
organisation. The sick ones need turnaround to be
followed by PI management in order to make the
organization even more vibrant and healthy. The
underlying basic assumption in both of them is the
centrality of the task system which must be built,
restructured and managed rationally and scientifically.
37. According to the passage, managers who adopt PI
management style
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Avoid risks
Adopt sophisticated technology
Do not adapt or innovate
None of the above
38. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement?
(1) Organisation’s growth is regulated by PI
Management Style
(2) Organisation’s image improves with PI
Management Style
(3) PI Management improves organisation’s
adaptability
(4) PI Management improves the result
orientation of organisation
39. According to the author of the passage,
(1) Khandwalla is a proponent of the traditional
style of management
(2) Khandwalla is a critique of the traditional style
of management
(3) Khandwalla is neither a proponent nor a
critique of the traditional style of management
(4) None of the above
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40. According to the author,
44. According to the passage,
(1) Khandwalla proposes a humane turnaround
(2) Khandwalla proposes a surgical turnaround
(3) Khandwalla proposes a mix of humane and
surgical turnaround
(4) None of the above
(1) ‘Pioneering – Innovative’ management
enhances performance
(2) ‘Pioneering – Innovative’ management inhibits
performance
(3) ‘Pioneering – Innovative’ management controls
performance
(4) ‘Pioneering – Innovative’ management
measures performance
41. According to the passage,
(1) Effectiveness of ‘Pioneering – Innovative
Management’ style is not dependent on
situational factors
(2) Situational factors have no influence on
‘Pioneering – Innovative Management’ style
(3) Effectiveness of ‘Pioneering – Innovative
Management’ style is partially influenced by
situational factors
(4) Situational factors totally control ‘Pioneering –
Innovative Management’ style
45. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) ‘Pioneering – Innovative’ management is a
result of top management policies and
practices.
(2) Management policies and practices are a result
of ‘Pioneering – Innovative’ management.
(3) 'Pioneering – Innovative’ management works
well in a closed environment.
(4) ‘Pioneering – Innovative’ management works
well in a controlled environment.
42. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) The present norms and managerial functions
are
influenced
by
'Pioneering
–
Innovativeness'
(2) 'Pioneering - Innovativeness' of the past has
no significant influence on present norms and
managerial functions
(3) The ‘Pioneering – Innovativeness’ of the past
has very little impact on present norms and
managerial functions
(4) None of the above
43. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement?
(1) The policy of recruiting creative managers at
junior levels has direct impact on the current
levels
of
‘Pioneering
–
Innovative’
management
(2) Deliberate efforts to develop innovative
business strategies has direct impact on
‘Pioneering – Innovative’ management
(3) Steps to inculcate innovative operating
models has direct impact on ‘Pioneering –
Innovative’ management
(4) Past ‘Pioneering – Innovative’ management
had influence on present business strategies
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46. According to the passage,
(1) Past practices of encouraging excellence had
no influence on current ‘PI’ levels
(2) Past practices of encouraging excellence
influenced current ‘PI’ levels
(3) Past ‘PI’ levels influenced current focus on
excellence
(4) Past ‘Pl’ levels influenced the current level of
expertise.
47. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement?
(1) ‘PI’ management is characterised by an
emphasis on innovation
(2) Emphasis on high return on investment is
characteristic of ‘PI’ management
(3) Emphasis on high quality and low price is
characteristic of ‘PI’ management
(4) ‘PI’ management is characterised by an
emphasis on being a pioneer
48. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) Khandwalla used a questionnaire to seek
responses from 75 respondents.
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(2) Khandwalla used a questionnaire to seek
responses from executives of 75 respondents.
(3) Khandwalla sought responses from 75
organisations of similar nature.
(4) Likert sought responses from 75 organisations
of similar nature
49. According to the passage,
(1) Khandwalla believes that lower levels are
influenced by the style of top management
(2) Likert believed that lower levels are influenced
by the style of top management
(3) Neither Likert nor Khandwalla believed that
lower levels are influenced by the style of top
management
(4) None of the above
50. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement?
(1) Likert preferred to use the expression
‘management’ instead of ‘leadership’
(2) Khandwalla preferred to use the expression
‘management’ instead of ‘leadership’
(3) Neither the work of Likert nor that of
Khandwalla deal with the theory of
‘leadership’.
(4) Both Likert and Khandwalla deal with the
theory of ‘leadership’
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SECTION – II
Verbal Ability (50 questions)
Question Nos. 51 to 57 consist of a number of
sentences which, when properly sequenced, form a
coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with
a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences
from among the four choices lettered (1) through
(4).
54.
A. The
investigation
was
confined
to
manufacturing firms in the area
B. Those concerned with mining and quarrying,
construction, transport, and trade and
commerce, were excluded
C. The number of workers employed by the firms
in the area ranged from a dozen to
approximately 35,000
D. A long search produced a comprehensive list of
203 manufacturing firms.
51.
A. The men jumped up and rushed to the river
B. They poured it on the glowing bed of charcoal
C. The water gurgled out and the dying embers
hissed and sent up little curls of vapour
D. They quickly came back with pitchers laden
with water.
(1) DABC
(2) ADCB
(3) CBAD
(4) BADC
(1)ABDC
(3) ABCD
(4) BACD
(1) ADCB
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(3) BCAD
(3) DBCA
(4) CDBA
A. The causes of success or failure are deep and
complex, chance plays a part
B. Motivation and opportunity can be supplied in
good part by incentive compensation and
decentralisation respectively
C. It is not easy to say why one management is
successful and another is not
D. Experience has convinced me, however, that
for those who are responsible for a business,
motivation and opportunity are very
important factors.
A. I also believe in the possibility as well as the
desirability of applying science to problems
arising in social science
B. Believing as I do in social science, I can only
look with apprehension upon social pseudoscience
C. I am a rationalist, which means that I believe in
discussion and argument
D. I may say why I have chosen this particular
subject
(2) DCAB
(2) BCDA
56.
53.
(1) CDAB
(4) CBDA
A. Moreover, private sector competitors claim to
be moving from aluminium manufacture to
specialized uses of the metal
B. The new concern could probably supply the
metal to established companies for use as
input
C. As we all know, there is still shortage of the
metal
D. All in all, though, the new plant will not
threaten existing manufacturers in a big way
A. failure to put the right person at the right place
could prove expensive for the organisation
B. All managers are decision makers
C. The rightness of a decision largely depends
upon whether or not the manager has utilized
the right persons in right ways.
D. The effectiveness of managers is largely
reflected in their track record in taking the
right decisions
(2) BDCA
(3) DCBA
55.
52.
(1) DCBA
(2) BCDA
(1) CDAB
(4) DBAC
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(2) CADB
(4) ACDB
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57.
A. The wind at his back also helped him on his
course
B. Dark as the night was he found it easy to follow
the track
C. Not only that he was confident that there
would be few, if any, traces of his passage
D. Thanks to the drought, it was hard and firm
and he made good speed
(1) CABD
(2) DACB
(3) DBAC
58. I would like to see Ramu do his own work for a
change instead of always back–seat driving.
driving a car from the back
being critical of work being done by others
offering advice
annoying
59. He proved to be quite a wet blanket at the party for
he spoke to no one and morosely sat by himself.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1) both goose and gander should be equally
treated
(2) what is thought suitable for a man should also
be for a woman
(3) goose and gander eat the same sauce
(4) the principle of equal treatment should be
implemented
(4) BCDA
Question Nos. 58 to 63 consist of sentences each of
which contains one or two idioms. Four possible
meanings labelled (1) through (4) are provided
below each sentence. Choose the one which best
expresses the meaning of the idiom.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
62. Women should be paid the same as men when they
do the same job, for surely, what is sauce for
gander is sauce for the goose.
he was crying
discouraged the rest from having fun
he wet the blanket
he had covered himself with a wet blanket
63. The two women are so jealous that at the drop of a
hat they start insulting each other.
(1) on every occasion
(2) for no reason at all
(3) when a hat is dropped
(4) very rarely
Directions for question Nos. 64 to 78: Each of the
questions below contains one or more blank
spaces, each blank space indicating an omitted
word or phrase. Beneath the sentence are four
words or set of words. Choose the word or set of
words for each blank space that best fits the
meaning of the sentence as a whole.
64. The judge, after ruling that the news report had
unjustly ............. the reputation of the Physician,
ordered the newspaper to ............. its libellous
statements in print.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
60. The ship was about to weigh anchor when the
storm came.
(1) weigh the anchor
(3) raise the anchor
(2) leave the docking berth
(4) drop the anchor
61. Debu had a chequered career since I first knew him
as a clerk in the local bank.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
had a variety of jobs and experiences
a career which helped him make lots of money
a career where he signed a lot of cheques
did odd jobs
injured – retract
sullied – publicize
damaged – disseminate
tarnished – cover up
65. Psychologists agree that human beings have a
strong need to .............. their time; having too much
idle time can be as stressful as having none at all.
(1) compartmentalise
(3) functionalise
66. ………… several generations, Alex Haley wrote
Roots, a novel explaining both his family history
and the history of American bigotry.
(1) Focusing on
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(2) structure
(4) remand
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(3) With an eye on
(4) Living through
67. Although for centuries literature was considered
something that would instruct as well as entertain,
the modern reader has little patience with ...............
works and seeks only to be ...............
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
fiction – enlightened
didactic – distracted
voluminous – absorbed
philosophical – entertained
73. Perhaps because something in us instinctively
distrusts such displays of natural fluency, some
readers approach John Updike’s fiction with.............
(1) bewilderment
(3) veneration
74. We were amazed that a man who had been
heretofore the most ............. of public speakers
could, in a single speech, electrify an audience and
bring them cheering to their feet.
(1) masterful
(3) pedestrian
68. To strive, to seek, to find, and ............... are the heroic
goals of Ulysses in Tennyson’s famous poem.
(1) not yielding
(3) not to yield
(2) yet to yield
(4) yet not yield
69. The most frustrating periods of any diet are the
inevitable ..............., when weight loss ............... if not
stops.
(1) moods – accelerates
(3) meals – ceases
(2) feasts – halts
(4) plateaus – slows
70. Since the author’s unflattering references to her
friends were so ............, she was surprised that her
.............. were recognized.
(1) explicitly
(3) assiduously
(1) volatile
(3) insipid
(1) assessment – eclectic
(2)development – trite
(3) delineation – intricate
(4) portrayal – aesthetic
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(2) resilient
(4) acerbic
76. In one shocking instance of ............. research, one of
the nation’s most influential researchers in the
field of genetics reported on experiments that were
never carried out and published deliberately .............
scientific papers on his nonexistent work.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
comprehensive - abstract
theoretical - challenging
fraudulent - deceptive
erroneous - impartial
77. Her novel published to universal acclaim, her
literary gifts acknowledged by the chief figures of
the Harlem Renaissance, her reputation as yet
............... by envious slights, Hurston clearly was at
the ................... of her career.
(2) perfunctorily
(4) honestly
72. The subtleties of this novel are evident not so much
in the character ............... as they are in its
profoundly ............... plot structure.
(2) auspicious
(4) accomplished
75. Despite the mixture’s ............... nature, we found that
by lowering its temperature in the laboratory we
could dramatically reduce its tendency to vaporize.
(1) laudatory – styles
(2) obvious – anecdotes
(3) oblique – allusions
(4) critical – eulogies
71. Gaurav was intent on maintaining his status as first
in his class; because even the smallest mistakes
infuriated him, he reviewed all his papers ...............
before submitting them to his teacher.
(2) suspicion
(4) recklessness
(1) undamaged – ebb
(2) untarnished – zenith
(3) unmarred – brink
(4) untainted – extremity
78. New concerns about growing religious tension in
Northern India were .............. this week after at least
fifty people were killed and hundreds injured or
arrested in rioting between Hindus and Muslims.
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(1) invalidated
(3) fuelled
(2) restrained
(4) lessened
(1) the more the company management reiterated
its original proposal of a mere 3% raise
(2) the company management’s original proposal
for a mere 3% raise was reiterated all the more
(3) the company management kept on reiterating
its original proposal of a mere 3% raise
(4) the more the company management’s original
proposal of a mere 3% raise was reiterated
Directions for question Nos. 79 to 88: Some part of
each sentence below is underlined. Four choices
numbered (1) through (4) for rephrasing the
underlined part follow each sentence. Select the
best alternative, following the requirements of
standard written English.
79. Regardless “new modernism” in literature, which
produces novels, which often read like the diaries
of madmen, most readers still prefer a
conventional plot and simple style.
82. The president of the resident welfare association
tried to convince his neighbours they should join
forces prevent crime in the neighbourhood rather
than continuing to be victimized.
(1) they should join forces to prevent crime in the
neighbourhood rather than continuing to be
victimized
(2) that they should join forces to prevent crime in
the neighbourhood rather than continue to be
victimized
(3) about joining forces to prevent crime in the
neighbourhood instead of continuing to be
victimized
(4) to join forces to prevent crime in the
neighbourhood rather than continuing to be
victimized
(1) Regardless of the “new modernism” in
literature, which produces
(2) Regardless of the “new modernism” literature,
which produce
(3) Regardless, the “new modernism” in literature
produces
(4) Irregardless of the “new modernism” in
literature, which produces
80. A career in the medical profession, which requires
an enormous investment of time and money, do not
guarantee success as there is so much competition.
(1) which requires an enormous investment of
time and money, do not guarantee success as
there is so much competition
(2) which requires an enormous investment of
time and money, does not guarantee success
since there is so much competition
(3) requiring an enormous investment of time and
money, and cannot guarantee success because
there is so much competition
(4) requires that an enormous investment of time
and money be made and success cannot be
guaranteed due to competition
81. The more the union stubbornly refused to budge
from its original demand for 20% across-the-board
salary increase, the more the company
management reiterated its original proposal of a
mere 3% raise.
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83. Lawyers and doctors alike both agree something
should be done about the rise in medical
malpractice cases which are on the increase.
(1) alike both agree that something should be
done about the rise in medical malpractice
cases which are on the increase
(2) alike agree that something should be done
about the rise in medical malpractice cases
(3) agree that something should be done about the
rise in the number of medical malpractices
(4) None of the above
84. The conductor seemed entirely arbitrary the choice
of tempo, because of which each successive
movement of the piece seemed to have no
connection to what had come before.
(1) The conductor’s choice of tempo seemed
entirely arbitrary
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(2) It seemed the conductor chose tempo entirely
arbitrary
(3) The conductor was entirely arbitrary in his
choice of tempo
(4) The tempo was chosen entirely by the
arbitrary conductor
85. Although the conditions in which she lived suggest
that she was miserly, her contributions to charities
show that she is generous.
(1) her charities showed generous contributions
(2) her generosities made large contributions
(3) her contributions to charities showed that she
is not generous
(4) her contributions to charities show that she
was generous
86. The governor’s intolerance of dissent among his
aids was intensified by loyalty from all.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
by him insisting upon total loyalty from all.
by his insistence upon total loyalty from all
by all insisting upon his loyalty
by his insisting upon their loyalty
87. Although he was often incomplete in his work, he
was promoted simply because he was with the
company longer than anyone else.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Although work was often incomplete
His work was often incomplete although
Although his work was often incomplete
Although he often completed his work
88. Though the concert had been enjoyable, it was
protracted overly.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
it was overly protracted.
it overly protracted.
it protracted overly.
it got protracted overly.
Directions for Question Nos. 89 to 100: Each
question consists of sentences, which are divided
into four parts, numbered (1) through (4). One part
in each sentence is not acceptable in standard
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written English. Identify that part in each of the
sentences which contains the error.
89. (1) Her acceptance of speech
(2) was well received
(3) eliciting thunderous applause
(4) in several points.
90. (1) An oppressive solemnity
(2) and not the festive mood
(3) one might have expected
(4) characterised the mood by the gathering
91. (1) All aspiring artists must
(2) struggle by the conflict
(3) between faith in their own talent
(4) and knowledge that very few are great enough
to succeed
92. (1) Despite some bad news
(2) Michel’s stature was not diminished
(3) and her fans or critics
(4) were unanimous in appreciating her work
93. (1) Jazz is an American art form
(2) which was now flourishing in Europe
(3) through the efforts of expatriates
(4) in France, Scandinavia and Germany
94. (1) Character and
(3) win us
(2) not riches
(4) respect
95. (1) Pickpocketers are (2) sometimes spotted
(3) by policemen
(4) at bus stops
96. (1) His both hands
(3) so he
(2) have been injured
(4) cannot work
97. (1) Several guests noticed Mr. Peter
(2) fall back
(3) in his chair
(4) and gasping for breath
98. (1) The short story
(3) more than
2A.18
(2) should not exceed
(4) two hundred words.
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99. (1) They appointed him
(2) as a manager
(3) as he
(4) is efficient
100. (1) Owing to illness (2) he was unable
(3) to go
(4) for his holiday.
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SECTION-III
Quantitative Ability (50 questions)
101. The sum of all the roots of 4x3 – 8x2 – 63x – 9 = 0 is:
(1) 8
(2) 2
(3) – 8
(4) –2
102. A man born in the first half of the nineteenth
century was x years old in the year x2. He was born
in:
(1) 1806
(2) 1836
(3) 1812
(2) 465
(3) 600
(1) 5 and 9
(3) 5 and 4
(4) 1825
103. A train, an hour after starting, meets with an
accident which detains it for a half hour, after
which it proceeds at 3/4 of its former rate and
arrives 3(1/2) hours late. Had the accident
happened 90 kilometers farther along the line, it
would have arrived only 3 hour late. The length of
the trip in kilometers was:
(1) 400
108. A three-digit number has, from left to right, the
digits h, t, and u with h > u When the number with
the digits reversed is subtracted from the original
number, the units’ digit in the difference is 4. The
next two digits, from right to left, are:
(2) 9 and 5
(4) 4 and 5
109. In a group of cows and chickens, the number of legs
was 14 more than twice the number of heads. The
number of cows was:
(1) 5
(2) 7
[√√
(4) 640
(1) α16
(3) 10
] [√√
(1) 7: 23 and 7: 53
(3) 7: 22 and 7: 53
105.
√
( )
(2) x = 2
(4) x = 2, x = 1
( )
(2) 0.81
(3) 2.43
PP-02
( )√
√
( )
(
)
(
)
(
)
(
)
( )
( )
(4) 0.8
107. Three boys agree to divide a bag of marbles in the
following manner. The first boy takes one more
than half the marbles. The second takes a third of
the number remaining. The third boy finds that he
is left with twice as many marbles as the second
boy. The original number of marbles:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
√
( )
√
( )
106. If log x – 5 log 3 = –2, then x equals:
(1) 1.25
(4) α4
112. Given two positive integers x and y with x < y The
percent that x is less than y is:
√
(3) x = 2/3
(3) α8
√
(2) 7: 20 and 7: 50
(4) 7: 23 and 7: 52
(1) x = 1
]
(2) α12
104. The times between 7 and 8 o’clock, correct to the
nearest minute, when the hands of a clock will
form an angle of 84 degrees are:
(4) 12
is 8 or 38
cannot be determined from the given data
is 20 or 26
is 14 or 32
113. The points A, B and C are on circle O. The tangent
line at A and the secant BC intersect at P, B lying
between C and P.
(1) 5
(2) 10
√
( )
√
(4) 20
114. The sum of three numbers is 98. The ratio of the
first to the second is 2/3, and the ratio of the
second to the third is 5/8. The second number is:
(1) 15
2A.20
(2) 20
(3) 30
(4) 32
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115. Two candles of the same height are lighted at the
same time. The first is consumed in 4 hours and the
second in 3 hours. Assuming that each candle
burns at a constant rate, in how many hours after
being lighted was the first candle twice the height
of the second?
( )
( )
( )
( )
116. In our number system the base is ten. If the base
were changed to four, you would count as follows:
1, 2, 3, 10, 11, 12, 13, 20, 21, 22, 23, 30,………
The twentieth number would be:
(1) 110
(2)104
(3) 44
(4) 38
117. Hari and Ravi started a race from opposite ends of
the pool. After a minute and a half, they passed
each other in the center of the pool. If they lost no
time in turning and maintained their respective
speeds, how many minutes after starting did they
pass each other the second time?
121. The sum of the roots of equation 4x2 + 5 – 8x = 0 is
equal to :
( )
( )
( )
( )
(1) y2 + 14y – 7 = 0
(3) y2 + 10y – 7= 0
(2) y2 + 8y + 1 = 0
(4) y2 + y – 12 = 0
123. If the digit 1 is placed after a two digit number
whose tens’ digit is t, and units’ digit is u, the new
number is:
(1) 10t + u + 1
(2) 100t + 10u +1
(3) 1000t + 10u + 1 (4) t + u + 1
124. The area of the largest triangle that can be
inscribed in a semi-circle whose radius r, is:
(2) r3
118. The numbers x, y, z are proportional to 2, 3, 5. The
sum of x, y and z is 100. The number y is given by
the equation y = ax – 10. Then a is:
( )
( )
( )
119. If the square of a number of two digits is decreased
by the square of the number formed by reversing
the digits, then the result is not always divisible by:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
9
the product of the digits
the sum of the digits
the difference of the digits
√
( )
( )
PP-02
√
( )
√
(3) 2r2
(4) 2r3
( )
(
( )
( )
122. The values of y which will satisfy the equations
2x2 + 6x + 5y + 1= 0
2x + y + 3 = 0
may be found by solving:
(1) r2
( )
( )
√
√
(1) 725
)(
)
(2) 6
(3) 3125
(4) 5
126. Two boys A and B start at the same time to ride
from Delhi to Meerut, 60 kilometers away. A
travels 4 kilometers an hour slower than B. B
reaches Meerut and at once turns back meeting A
12 kilometers from Meerut. The rate of A was:
(1) 4 kph
(2) 8 kph
(3) 12 kph
(4) 16 kph
127. A manufacturer builds a machine which will
address 500 envelopes in 8 minutes. He wishes to
build another machine so that when both are
operating together they will address 500 envelopes
in 2 minutes. The equation used to find how many
minutes x it would require the second machine to
address 500 envelopes alone, is:
( ) √
( )
2A.21
( )
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FMS Dec 2010
( )
(3) x = 5y
( )
128. From a group of boys and girls, 15 girls leave.
There are then left two boys for each girl. After this
45 boys leave. There are then 5 girls for each boy.
The number of girls in the beginning was:
(1) 40
(2) 43
(3) 29
(1) 4 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 1 : 2
130. The number of circular pipes with an inside
diameter of 1 inch which will carry the same
amount of water as a pipe with an inside diameter
of 6 inches is:
(1) 6π
( )
(2) 12
( )
(3) 36
( )
(4) 36π
( )
( )
( )
PP-02
( )
√
( )
(
( )
( )
)
( )
( )
( )
( )
136. A total of 28 handshakes was exchanged at the
conclusion of a party. Assuming that each
participant was equally polite toward all the
others, the number of people present was:
(1) 14
(2) 28
(3) 56
(4) 8
137. A number which when divided by 10 leaves a
remainder of 9, when divided by 9 leaves a
remainder of 8, by 8 leaves a remainder of 7, etc.,
down to where, when divided by 2, it leaves a
remainder of 1, is:
(1) 59
(2) 419
(3) 1259
(4) 2519
138. The ratio of the area of a square inscribed in a
semicircle to the area of the square inscribed in the
entire circle is:
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 2 : 5
(4) 3 : 4
139. The points (6, 12) and (0, –6) are connected by a
straight line. Another point on this line is:
(1) (3, 3)
√
133. Indicate in which one of the following equations y
is neither directly nor inversely proportional to x:
(1) x + y = 0
√
( )
( )
132. A rectangle inscribed in a triangle has its base
coinciding with the base b of the triangle. If the
altitude of the triangle is h, and the altitude x of the
rectangle is half the base of the rectangle, then:
( )
134. The values of a in the equation: log10 (a2 – 15a) = 2
are:
(4) none of these
129. Ajay ordered 4 pairs of black socks and some
additional pairs of blue socks. The price of the
black socks per pair was twice that of the blue.
When the order was filled, it was found that the
number of pairs of the two colors had been
interchanged. This increased the bill by 50%. The
ratio of the number of pairs of black socks to the
number of pairs of blue socks in the original order
was :
(4) 3x + y = 10
(2) 3xy = 10
(2) (2, 1)
(3) (7, 16)
(4) (–1, –4)
140. A merchant bought some goods at a discount of
20% of the list price. He wants to mark them at
such a price that he can give a discount of 20% of
the marked price and still make a profit of 20% of
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FMS Dec 2010
the selling price. The percent of the list price of
which he should mark them is:
(1) 20
(2) 100
(3) 125
only in the coefficient of the first degree term and
finds –9 and –1 for the roots. The correct equation
is:
(4) 80
(1) x2 – 10x + 9 = 0 (2) x2 + 10x + 9 = 0
(3) x – 10x + 16 = 0 (4) x2 – 8x – 9 = 0
numerically equal but of opposite signs, the value
of m must be:
( )
( )
( )
( )
( )
142. If the sum of the first ten terms of an arithmetic
progression is four times the sum of the first five
terms, then the ratio of the first term to the
common difference is:
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
( )
( )
( )
( )
(
(
(2) (x + 2) f(x)
( ) (
( )
(
( )
( )
( )
( )
148. Of the following sets, the one that includes all
values of x which will satisfy 2x – 3 > 7 – x is:
( )
( )
( )
( )
( )
( )
( )
) (
)
150. A and B together can do a job in 2 days; B and C can
do it in four days; and A and C in 2(2/5) days. The
number of days required for A to do the job alone
is:
(1) 1
145. In solving a problem that reduces to a quadratic
equation one student makes a mistake only in the
constant term of the equation and obtains 8 and 2
for the roots. Another student makes a mistake
PP-02
( )
)
(1) f(x) + f(2)
) ( )
( )
( )
)
( )
147. If x varies as the cube of y, and y varies as the fifth
root of z, then x varies as the nth power of z, where
n is:
(4) 4 : 1
143. Two cyclist, k kilometres apart, and starting at the
same time, would be together in r hours if they
travelled in the same direction, but would pass
each other in t hours if they travelled in opposite
direction. The ratio of the speed of the faster cyclist
to that of the slower is:
( )
146. Instead of walking along two adjacent sides of a
rectangular field, a boy took a short-cut along the
diagonal of the field and saved a distance equal to
1/2 of the longer side. The ratio of the shorter side
of the rectangle to the longer side is:
2A.23
(2) 3
(3) 6
(4) 12
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SECTION-IV
Analytical Ability (50 questions)
Information for Question Nos. 151 to 156: In a Public
Sector Undertaking Township, there are five executives –
Ambrish, Amit, Rohit, Manu and Tarun. Two of them play
Cricket while the other three play different games viz.
Football, Tennis and Chess. One Cricket player and a
Chess player stay in the third flat, whereas the other
three stay in different flats, i.e. 2nd, 4th and 5th. Two of
these five players are mechanical engineers while the
other three are quality inspector, design engineer and
power engineer respectively. The chess player is the
oldest in age while one of the cricket players, who plays
at the national level, is the youngest in age. The age of the
other cricket player, who plays at the regional level, lies
between the football player and the chess player. Manu is
a regional level player and stays in the 3rd flat while
Tarun is a quality inspector and stays in the 5th flat. The
football player is a design engineer and stays in the 2nd
flat. Amit is a power engineer and plays Chess while
Ambrish is the mechanical engineer and plays Cricket at
the national level.
(4) Rohit and Tarun
156. The Chess player is a :
(1) Power engineer (2) Mechanical Engineer
(3) Design engineer (4) Quality inspector
Information for Question Nos. 157 to 159: P, Q, R, S, T
and X are six persons who decided to start a partnership
business in computer hardware. Q, R and T are ladies and
the rest are men. P, Q, R and X are well versed in
hardware but the others do not know much about
hardware. Q, S and X know marketing, but the others do
not know anything about marketing.
157. The male partner who knows marketing but does
not know computer hardware :
(1) S
(2) Amit
(4) Manu
(1) X
(2) Football
(4) Tennis
153. Who plays football?
(1) Ambrish
(3) Rohit
(2) Amit
(4) Manu
154. Agewise, who among the following lies between
Manu and Tarun?
(1) Quality inspector (2) Mechanical engineer
(3) Power engineer (4) Design engineer
(1) R
(2) Q
(3) T
(4) R
(2) Q
(3) T
(4) X
Information for Question Nos. 160 to 162: In a cycling
race, five participants from various nations – Chinese,
Nepalese, Indian, Iraqi and English – take part. Track 1 is
extreme left and Track 5 is extreme right. The following
conditions exist:
(i) The Nepalese and the Englishmen are not cycling
adjacent to each other.
(ii) The Iraqi is not in one of the extreme tracks.
(iii) The Chinese is to the left of the Indian
160. If the Nepalese is in Track 3, the Chinese in Track 1,
then the Indian could be in :
155. Who stay in the same flat?
(1) Track 4
(1) Ambrish and Amit
(2) Manu and Tarun
(3) Amit and Manu
PP-02
(4) Q
159. The female partner who neither knows hardware
nor marketing:
152. What does Tarun play?
(1) Chess
(3) Cricket
(3) X
158. The female partner who is well versed in computer
hardware but does not know marketing :
151. Who stays in the 4th flat?
(1) Ambrish
(3) Rohit
(2) P
(3) Track 2 or 4
2A.24
(2) Track 2
(4) None of the above
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FMS Dec 2010
161. If the Nepalese is in Track 4 and the Indian is in
Track 3, then the English-man could be in :
(1) Track 1
(3) Track 1 or 2
(2) Track 2
(4) None of the above
(1) Nephew
(3) Grandson
168. Tinu is John’s.................
(1) Aunt
(3) Sister
162. If the Iraqi is to the left of the Chinese, then the
Iraqi could be in :
(1) Track 2 only
(3) Track 2 or 3
(2) Track 3 only
(4) None of the above
Information for Question Nos. 163 to 165: In each of
these questions, jumbled alphabets of a meaningful word
are given. You are to rearrange the alphabets and select
from the given alternatives the word which is almost
opposite in meaning to the re-arranged word.
(1) Nephew
(3) Brother-in-law
(1) unconcerned
(3) honesty
(2) modesty
(4) silence
165. C L V A I G N I A L T :
(1) fascinating
(3) resolute
(2) fanaticism
(4) indolence
166. A hunter has just returned after a day’s bird
shooting. He was asked how many birds he had in
his bag. He answered, “They are all sparrows but
six, all pigeons but six, and all doves but six.” How
many birds did he have in his bag?
(1) 18
(2) 9
(3) 27
(1) Mohan is younger than Kulwant
(2) Mukesh and Gagan do not share the same
surname
(3) Madhav is younger than Rakesh
(4) Pushpa is younger than Mohan
167. How is John related to Kulwant?
PP-02
Information for Question Nos. 171 to 174: All the
vowels in the English Alphabet are retained in their
original places and the remaining letters are written in
the reverse order. The new sequence looks like: A, Z, Y, X,
E, W,….. . Now each of the letters in the new sequence
represents the letter in the original sequence.
171. Which one of the following is a valid word in the
new sequence?
(1) PUNYT
(2) PREHG
(2) VTFHC
(4) None of the above
172. Which one of the following represents the name of
a country?
(1) ITXNA
(2) YTINA
(4) None of the above
Information for Question Nos. 167 to 170: Mohan is
Rakesh’s paternal uncle. Ritu is Rakesh’s daughter.
Madhav is Ritu’s younger brother. Mukesh is Ritu’s
husband. John is Sunita’s son. Tinu is Madhav’s sister.
Kulwant is Rakesh’s father. Pushpa is Kulwant’s sister.
Kaushalaya is Mohan’s wife. Gagan is Mohan’s son. Sunita
is Kulwant’s daughter.
(2) Brother
(4) Nephew-in-law
170. From this data, which of the following statements
can be said to be correct?
(2) submissive
(4) indifferent
164. N E M I U E C P D:
(2) Cousin Sister
(4) Niece
169. Mukesh is Gagan’s.................
163. E E L I L S U O B R :
(1) gentle
(3) offensive
(2) Grandnephew
(4) Great Grandson
(3) YTOHV
(4) None of the above
173. Which one of the following is the name of a popular
brand?
(1) FILLS
(3) AKIEQ
(2) NIPKA
(4) None of the above
174. Which one of the following is not a valid word in
the new sequence?
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(1) PUJYQE
(3) JHINH
(3) WQOOX
(4) None of the above
Information for Question Nos. 175 to 182 : The
Financial Performance of NHPC Ltd. for the period
2005-2010 is presented in the following charts (All
figures are in Rs. Crores).
40000
7166
7531
9956
12234
17978
17275
5000
16548
10000
15261
20000
23273
30000
15000
2008-09
1075
5007-08
1004
2006-07
924
0
2005-06 2006-07 2007-08 2008-09 2009-10
NETWORTH
VALUE ADDED
4500
4214
4000
3500
3000
2662
2500
2000
2237
1602
1747
1500
1000
500
0
2005-06 2006-07 2007-08 2008-09 2009-10
1000
a
0
BORROWINGS
742
2005-06
4218
2671
2243
13858
35000
25000
2090
2009-10
1754
1614
2000
Profit
3000
4000
5000
Netsales
Evaluate the pairs of statements in each question on
the basis of data given in charts and mark:
(1) if only Statement I is correct.
(2) if only Statement II is correct.
(3) if both- the Statements are correct.
(4) if none of the Statements is correct.
175. Statement I: The Networth to Borrowings ratio
has been the lowest in the year 2008-09.
Statement II: The Profit to Networth ratio has
been the highest in the year2008-09.
176. Statement I: Percentage Profit growth over the
previous year has been the lowest in the year
2008-09.
Statement II: The Profit to Net Sales ratio has been
the highest in the year 2006-07.
177. Statement I: Percentage Value Added growth over
the previous year has been the highest in the year
2009-10.
Statement II: The Profit to Networth ratio has
been the lowest in the year 2007-08.
178. Statement I: Percentage Value Added growth over
the previous year has been the highest in the year
2007-08.
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Statement II: Percentage Value Added growth
over the previous year has been the lowest in the
year 2006-07.
179. Statement I: Profit to Net Sales ratio has been
consistently improving over the period under
review.
Statement II: Profit to Networth ratio has not been
consistently improving over the period under
review.
180. Statement I: Net Sales to Networth ratio has been
less than 15% in all, but one, years.
Statement II: Profit to Networth ratio has been
more than 5% in all, but one, years.
181. Statement I: Profit to Net Sales ratio suffered in
the year 2007-08 as compared to the previous
year.
Statement II: Profit to Net Sales ratio was the
highest in the year 2009-10.
182. Statement I: Percentage Value Added growth over
the previous year has been the highest in the year
2009-10.
Statement II: Percentage Value Added growth
over the previous year has been the lowest in the
year 2006-07.
183. In a certain code, the word CARTOON is written as
BBQUNPM. Using this code, OSHNZSX will stand for
the word:
(1) CURSORY
(3) NETWARE
(2) CORRECT
(4) None of the above
184. Five newly extracted diamonds were weighed by a
diamond mine worker. In his report card he
pointed out that diamond A is lighter than diamond
B. Diamond C is lighter than diamond D. Diamond B
is lighter than diamond D but heavier than
diamond E. Which diamond is the heaviest among
all of them at the time of extraction?
(1) E
PP-02
(2) D
(3) C
(4) None of the above
Information for question Nos. 185 to 189: Five
experts on Nano-technology involved in an
International Research Project hold a Quarterly Review
Meeting in Singapore. There are certain limitations on
their language skills. Expert R1 knows only Japanese
and Hindi; R2 is good at Japanese and English; R3 is
good at English and Hindi; R4 knows French and
Japanese quite well; and R5, an Indian, knows Hindi,
English and French.
185. Besides R5, which of the following can converse
with R4 without an interpreter?
(1) Only R1
(3) Only R3
(2) Only R2
(4) Both R1 and R2
186. Which of the following cannot converse without an
interpreter?
(1) R2 and R5
(3) R1 and R3
(2) R1 and R2
(4) R3 and R4
187. Choose the language that is least commonly used at
the meeting.
(1) English
(3) Japanese
(2) French
(4) None of the above
188. Which of the following can act as an interpreter
when R3 and R4 wish to discuss?
(1) Only R1
(3) Only R5
(2) Only R2
(4) None of the above
189. Suppose a sixth Expert R6 joins into chair the
session so that maximum number of the earlier five
is able to understand him, he should be fluent in :
(1) English & French (2) Japanese & Hindi
(3) English & Hindi (4) None of the above
Information for question Nos. 190 to 192: In the
English alphabet, letters from A to M denote numeric
values from 1 to 13 (such that A is 1, B is 2, ..............) and
letters from N to Z denote numeric values from – 13 to
– 1 (such that N is -13, O is -12,..............).
190. The numeric value of which of the following
equations will be a whole number?
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(1) KISS/RAPP
(2) HISS/YOUR
(2) HIS/HELL
(4) None of the above
191. Assuming that the salaries are basically coded with
the help of employee names using the code given
above, who among the following will be drawing
the highest salary?
(1) PREM
(3) RAMU
(2) SHAN
(4) None of the above
(3) 2, 5 and 8
(4) None of the above
195. The Indian Executives who do not travel by
Economy Class are represented by the space
numbered:
(1) 7
(2) PRO = DLW
(4) None of the above
Information for question Nos. 193 to 196: An Airline
Company has divided the potential market into three
categories through a market survey for the purpose of
implementing a Customer Relationship Management
Programme. The rectangle given in the diagram below
represents Economy Class passengers. The circle
represents working Executives and the triangle
represents the Indians.
(3) 2
(4) None of the above
196. The Airline Company wishes to target Economy
Class, non-Executive passengers for In-flight Duty
Free Shopping. Which area must it focus on?
(1) 6 and 5
(2) 1 and 2
192. Following the above mentioned code, which of the
following will be true?
(1) GS – TSZ = 0
(3) ROD = YET
(2) 3
(2) 6 and 2
(4) None of the above
197. Manish is Chitra’s son, Chitra and Simran are
sisters, Dibleen is Simran’s mother. Sagar is the son
of Dibleen. Which of the following statements is
true?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Sagar and Manish are cousins
Sagar is the paternal uncle of Manish
Simran is Manish’s grandmother
Chitra and Sagar are siblings
198. A + B means A is the boss of B; A – B means A is the
subordinate of B; and A * B means A is the
colleague of B. Given Devesh – Shirish + Kartik,
which of the following is certainly true?
(1) Shirish is the boss
(2) Devesh is the boss
(3) Kartik is the boss
(4) None of the above
193. A signature hotel is launching a service for
Executives who travel Economy Class but are not
Indians. Which segments should it concentrate in
the diagram above?
(1) 7
(3) 5 and 6
(2) 6
(4) None of the above
194. A travel agency wishes to target passengers who
are Executives and who travel by Economy Class.
Which segments in the diagram should it aim?
(1) 6 and 5
PP-02
199. A group of students is organized in two rows,
crossing each other. If a student is tenth from all
ends, how many students are there in the group?
(1) 27
(2) 47
(3) 37
(4) 39
200. A grocer sells half of the eggs that he has and
another half an egg to Anurag. Then he sells half of
the balance eggs and another half an egg to Deepak.
Then he sells half of the balance eggs and another
half an egg to Shivani. In the end he is left with just
7 eggs and he claims that he never broke an egg.
How many eggs did he start with?
(1) 66
(2) 6 and 7
2A.28
(2) 63
(3) 33
(4) 68
www.TestFunda.com
ANSWER KEY
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
Q.
Ans.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
3
3
4
1
1
4
3
3
1
1
3
2
2
3
1
1
1
2
4
1
3
1
4
1
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
1
4
2
4
1
1
4
1
2
1
3
3
4
1
1
2
3
2
1
4
2
2
2
1
3
3
4
2
2
3
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
1
2
1
1
2
1
4
3
4
3
3
3
2
3
1
3
2
3
1
2
1
2
2
1
4
2
3
1
1
4
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100
101
102
103
104
105
106
107
108
109
110
111
112
113
114
115
116
117
118
119
120
2
3
2
3
1
1
2
3
4
1
2
1
3
1
1
3
2
2
2
4
1
3
2
3
4
1
2
1
2
1
121
122
123
124
125
126
127
128
129
130
131
132
133
134
135
36
137
138
139
140
141
142
143
144
145
146
147
148
149
150
4
3
2
1
4
2
2
1
3
3
4
3
4
2
4
4
4
3
1
4
1
1
1
4
1
4
3
4
2
2
151
152
153
154
155
156
157
158
159
160
161
162
163
164
165
166
167
168
169
170
171
172
173
174
175
176
177
178
179
180
1
4
3
4
3
1
1
4
3
3
4
1
2
2
3
2
3
2
4
3
1
3
3
4
1
3
1
2
4
3
181
182
183
184
185
186
187
188
189
190
191
192
193
194
195
196
197
198
199
200
1
3
4
2
4
4
2
4
2
4
4
1
2
1
4
3
4
1
3
2
4
3
1
4
2