Non – Medical +2 Mega Test {Sample Paper}

Transcription

L.K. Gupta (Medical and Non - Medical Classes)
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Non – Medical
+2 Mega Test {Sample Paper}
General Instructions:The question paper contains 90 objective multiple choice questions.
There are three Sections in the question paper consisting of Section - I MATHS
(1 to 30), Section – II Physics (31 to 60) and Chemistry Section - III (61 to 90).
Each right answer carries (4 marks) and wrong (–1marks)
The maximum marks are 360.
Solution Visits: www.pioneermathematics.com/latest_updates.com
PIONEER EDUCATION (THE BEST WAY TO SUCCESS): S.C.O. 320, SECTOR 40–D, CHANDIGARH
1
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Section – I {Mathematics}
1.
The domain of the function f(x) =
(a) (1, 4)
2.
x
2
2x 8
(b) (–2, 4)
is
(c) (2, 4)
(d) none of these
Which of the following functions is not one-one
(a) f : R
(c) f :[
3.
log0.3 x 1
(b) f :[0, ]
R, f(x) = 2x + 5
/ 2, / 2]
[1, 7], f(x) = 3 sin x + 4 (d) f : R
The Cartesian product of A
[–1, 1], f(x) = cos x
[–1, 1], f(x) = sin x
A has 16 elements. S = {(a, b)
A
A | a < b}. (–1, 2) and
(0, 1) are two elements belonging to S. The remaining elements of S are given by.
4.
(a) {(–1, 0), (–1, 1), (0, 2), (1, 2)}
(b) {(–1, 0), (1, 1) (2, –1), (1, 2)}
(c) {(0, –1), (1, –1), (0, 2), (1, 2)}
(d) none of these
The domain of the function: f x
(a) (1, 2)
5.
sin
1
x 3
9 x
2
(b) [2, 3)
is
(c) [1, 3)
(d) [1, 2]
If the function f(x) = 2x3 9ax2 + 12a2x+1, where a > 0, attains its maximum and
minimum at p and q respectively such that p2 = q, then a equals
(a) 1/2
6.
(c) 1
(d) 2
Area of the greatest rectangle that can be inscribed in the ellipse
(a) ab
7.
(b) 3
(b) 2ab
x2
a2
y2
b2
1 is
(d) ab
(c) a/b
Let R be the real line. Consider the following subsets of the plane R R:
S: {(x, y): y = x + 1 and 0 < x < 2},
T : {(x, y): x
y is an integer}
which of the following is true :
(a) T is an equivalence relation on R but S is not
(b) Neither S nor T is an equivalence relation.
(c) Both S and T are equivalence relation on R.
(d) S is an equivalence relation but T is not.
2
8.
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If A is an invertible matrix and B is an orthogonal matrix, of the order same as that of A ,
then C = A–1 BA is
9.
(a) an orthogonal matrix
(b) symmetric matrix
(c) skew-symmetric matrix
(d) none of these
A spherical iron ball 10 cm in radius is coated with a layer of ice of uniform thickness
that melts at a rate of 50cm3/min. When the thickness of ice is 5 cm, then the rate at
which the thickness of ice decreases, is
(a)
1
cm/min
18
1
10. If A = 0
0
(b)
1
cm/min
36
(c)
5
cm/min
6
(d)
1
cm/min
54
0 0
1 1 , 6A–1 = A2 + cA + dl, then (c, d) is
2 4
(a) (–6, 11)
(b) (–11, 6)
(c) (11, 6)
(d) (6, 11)
x
11. For x
5
0,
, define f (x)= t sin t dt. Then f has:
2
0
(a)local maximum at π and 2π
(b)local minimum at π and 2π
(b) local maximum at π and local maximum at 2 π
(d) local minimum at π and local minimum at 2π
12. Let
be the complex number cos
2
3
(a) 1
2
z
2
(b) 0
2
. Then the number of distinct complex
3
2
z 1
number z satisfying
i sin
1
1
= 0 is
z
(c) 2
(d) 3
13. The shortest distance between line y –x = 1 and curve x = y2 is:
(a)
3
4
(b)
3 2
8
(c)
8
3 2
(d)
4
3
3
14. Let F : R
f (x)
lim
x
2
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1
R be a differentiable function having f(2) = 6, f’(2) =
. Then
48
4t 3
dt equals
x 2
(a) 24
15. If A =
(b) 36
1
1
2
(c) 12
(d) 18
(c) 134
(d) none of these
2 0
1 2 , then det (Adj (Adj A)) =
1 1
(a) 13
(b) 132
16. The set of points where f(x) =
x
is differentiable is
1 |x|
(a) (–∞, 0) (0, ∞) (b) (–∞, –1) (–1, ∞)
(c) (–∞, ∞)
(d) (0, ∞)
17. If f(x) = xe x(1-x), x R, then f(x) is :
(a) increasing on [-1/2, 1]
(b) increasing on R
(c) decreasing on [-1/2, 1]
(d) decreasing on R
18. Consider a rectangle whose length is increasing at the uniform rate of 2 m/sec, breadth
is decreasing at the uniform rate of 3 m/sec and the area is decreasing at the uniform
rate of 5m2/sec. If after some time the breadth of the rectangle is 2 m then the length of
the rectangle is :
(a) 1m
(b) 2m
(c) 4m
(d) 3m
19. At present, a firm is manufacturing 2000 items. It is estimated that the rate of change of
production P w. r. t. additional number of workers x is given by
dP
= 100 – 12 x . If the
dx
firm employs 25 more workers, then the new level of production of items is :
(a) 4500
20. If
(b) 2500
e tan x
d
,x
G(x) =
x
dx
(a) G
1
2
G
1
2
(c) 3000
1/2
0,
2
, then
(b) 2 G
4
2 tan(
e
x
1/4
G
16
x2 )
(d) 3500
dx is equal to
(c) G
4
G
16
(d)
G
1
2
G
1
4
4
dy
2x 3
21. If f (x) = sin (log x) and y = f
, then
equals
3 2x
dx
(a)
12
2x 3
sin
log
(3 2 x) 2
3 2x
(b) sin log
(c)
12
(3 x 2 x) 2
(d)
22. If y = sec (tan –1 x), then
(a) 2
(b)
23. The value of 2
(a) x + log | cos x
(c) x + log | sin x
4
4
(a) –1
(a) e4
d2 x
dy 2
1
2
(d) 1
is
4
|+c
(b) x – log | sin x
|+c
(d) x – log | cos x
x a n sin x 2 cos x
4
4
|
|
k, then is a equal to :
(c) 1
(d) 2
x2 x
w.r.t. x is :
x3 x 2 x 1
(a) log(x2 + 1) + c (b)
x2 5x 3
26. lim
x 0
x2 x 3
12
2x 3
cos log
2
(3x 2 x)
3 2x
(c)
(b) –2
25. The integral of
27.
1
2
5 tan x
dx
tan x 2
24. If the integral
2x 3
3 2x
dy
at x = 1 is equal to :
dx
sinx dx
sin x
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1
log(x2 + 1) + c
2
(c)
1
log|x2 – 1|+c
2
(d) log|x2–1|+c
x
(b) e2
(c) e3
(d) 1
equals:
d2 y
(a)
dx 2
1
(b)
d2y
dx2
1
dy
dx
3
d2 y
(c)
dx 2
dy
dx
2
(d)
d2y
dx2
dy
dx
3
5
28. If f : R
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R is a function defined by f(x) = [x] cos
2x 1
2
, where[x] denotes the
greatest integer function, then f is :
(a) continuous for every real x.
(b) discontinuous only at x = 0.
(c) discontinuous only at non-zero integral values of x. (d) continuous only at x = 0.
Assertion & Reason
The following questions consist of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion (A)’ and
the other labelled as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully
and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so,
whether the Reason (R) is the correct explanation for the given Assertion (A). Select
your answer to these items using the codes given below and then select the correct
option.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
29. Assertion (A): The graph y x3 ax2 bx c has no extremum, if a2 3b
Reason (R): y is either increasing or decreasing
ln(2 x) x2n sin x
30. For |x| < 1, then lim
n
1 x2n
x R.
ln(2 x)
Reason (R): For 1 x 1 lim x2n 0
n
6
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Section – II {Physics}
31. A thin ring of radius a has a positive charge Q uniformly distributed over it. A particle of
mass m and having a negative charge q is placed on the axis at a distance x from the
centre of the ring. Show that the motion of the negatively charged particle is
approximately simple harmonic. Calculate the time period of oscillation.
(a) 2
4
ma2
, (b) 3
qQ
0
4
ma3
qQ
0
(c) 2
4
ma3
qQ
0
(d) 2
4
ma3
3qQ
0
32. Two charges, Q each at a distance r from each other. A third charge q is placed on the
line joining the above two charges such that all the three charges are in equilibrium.
What is the magnitude, sign and position of the charge ?
(a) Q/4 and it is located exactly midway A and B
(b) –Q/4 and it is located exactly midway A and B
(c) Q/2 and it is located exactly midway A and B
(d) None of the above
33. Three point charges q, 2q and 8q are to be placed on a 9 cm long straight line. Find the
position of the charge q such that the potential energy of this system is minimum.
(a) 1 cm from 2q
(b) 2 cm from 2q
(c) 3 cm from 2q
(d) 4 cm from 2q
34. Find the equivalent capacitance of the system across the terminals A and B. All the
capacitors have equal capacitances.
(a) 2C
(b) 3C
(c) 4C
(d) 5C
35. A charged particle of mass m = 10 kg and charge q = 2 C is thrown from a horizontal
ground at an angle
= 450 with speed 20 ms–1. In space, a horizontal electric field
E = 2 107 Vm–1 exists. The range of the projectile thrown is
(a) 50 m
(b) 100 m
(c) 150 m
(d) 200 m
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36. A spherical conductor with a radius of 0.20 m has an excess charge of 10.0
C. What is
the electric field at the surface of the sphere?
(a) 4.25
106 NC–1 (b) 2.25
106 NC–1
(c) 3.25
106 NC–1
(d) 5.25
106 NC–1
37. Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor becomes 4/3 times its original value if a
dielectric slab of thickness t = d/2 is inserted between the plates (d is the separation
between the plates). The dielectric constant of the slab is
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 2
38. The dimensional formula of electric intensity is
(a) [MLT–2 A–1]
(b) [MLT–3A–1]
(c) [ML2T–3A–1]
(d) [ML2T–3A–2]
39. A hollow conducting sphere or radius R has a charge (+Q) on its surface. What is the
electric potential within the sphere at a distance r = R/3 from its centre?
(a)
1
4
.
0
Q
r
(b)
1
4
.
0
Q
r2
(c)
1
4
.
0
Q
R
(d) Zero
40. Four charges equal to – Q are placed at the four corners of a square and a charge q is at
its centre. If the system is in equilibrium, the value of q is
(a)
Q
1 2 2
4
(b)
Q
1 2 2
2
(c)
Q
1 2 2
2
(d)
Q
1 2 2
4
41. In the circuit shown, the cell is ideal, with emf = 10 V. Each resistance is of 2
. The
potential difference across the capacitor is
(a) 12V
(b) 10 V
(c) 8V
(d) zero
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42. A copper wire of length L and radius r is nickel plated till its final radius becomes R but
length remains L. If the resistivity of nickel and copper be
n
and
c
respectively, the
conductance of the nickelled wire is
r2
(a)
L. c
R 2 r2
(b)
L.
(c)
n
R 2 r2
r2
L
c
(d)
n
L. c
r2
L.
R
2
n
r2
43. In a Wheatstone’s bridge, three resistances P, Q and R connected in the three arms and
the fourth arm is formed by two resistances S1 and S2 connected in parallel. The
condition for the bridge to be balanced will be
(a)
P
Q
2R
S1 S2
(b)
P
Q
R S1 S2
S1S2
(c)
P
Q
R S1 S2
2S1S2
(d)
P
Q
R
S1 S2
44. The equivalent resistance between the terminals A and D in the following circuit is
(a) 10
45. A resistance of 2
(b) 20
(c) 5
(d) 30
is connected across the gap of a metre-bridge (the length of the wire
is 100 cm) and an unknown resistance, greater than 2
, is connected across the other
gap. When these resistance are interchanged , the balanced point shifts by 20 cm.
Neglecting any correction, the unknown resistance is
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 2
46. A resistor R and 2 F capacitor in series is connected though a switch to 200 V direct
supply. A cross the capacitor is a neon bulb that lights up at 120V. Calculate the value
of R to make the bulb light up 5 seconds after the switch has been closed (log 10 2.5 =
0.4)
(a) 1.7 ×105
(b) 2.7×106
(c) 3.3×107
(d) 1.3×104
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47. The figure shows an experimental plot discharging of a capacitor in an RC circuit. The
time constant of this circuit lies between :
(a) 150 sec. and 200 sec.
(b) 0 sec. and 50 sec.
(c) 50 sec. and 100 sec.
(d) 100 sec and 150 sec
48. In an LCR circuit as shown below both switches are open initially. Now switch S 1 is
closed S2 kept open. (q is charge on the capacitor and
RC is capacitive time
constant). Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) At t = , q = CV/2
(b) At t = 2 , q = CV (1–e–2)
(c) At t = /2, q = CV (1–e–1)
(d) Work done by the battery is half of the energy dissipated in the resistor
49. A series R– C circuit is connected to AC voltage source. Consider two cases; (a) when C is
without a dielectric medium and (b) when C is filled with dielectric of constant 4. The
current IR through the resistor and voltage VC across the capacitor are compared in
the two cases. Which of the following is/are true?
(a) IRA IRB
(b) IRA IBR
(c) VCA VCB
(d) VCA VCB
10
50. In the given circuit, the AC source has
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100 rad/s. Considering the inductor and
capacitor to be idea, the correct choice (s) (are)
(a) The current through the circuit, I is 0.3 A
(b) The current through the circuit, I is 0.3 2
(c) The voltage across 100
(d) The voltage across 50
resistor = 10 2 V.
resistor = 10V.
51. A fully charged capacitor C with initial charge q 0 is connected to a coil of self
inductance L at t = 0. The time at which the energy is stored equally between the
electric and magnetic field is :
(a)
4
LC
(b) 2
LC
(c)
LC
(d)
LC
52. A student measures the focal length of a convex lens by putting an object pin at a
distance u from the lens and measuring the distance v of the image pin. The graph
between u and v plotted by the student should look like
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53. A mixture of light, consisting of wavelength 590 nm and an unknown wavelength,
illuminates Young’s double slit and gives rise to two overlapping interference patterns
on the screen. The central maximum of both lights coincide. Further, it is observed that
the third bright fringe of known light coincides with the 4th bright fringe of the
unknown light. From this data, the wavelength of the unknown light is
(a) 393.4 nm
(b) 885.0 nm
(c) 442.5 nm
(d) 776.8 nm
54. In Young’s double slit experiment, one of the slit is wider than other, so that amplitude
of the light from one slit is double of that from other slit. If Im be the maximum
intensity, the resultant intensity I when they interfere at phase difference
(a)
Im
4 5 cos
9
(b)
Im
1 2 cos2
3
2
(c)
Im
1 4cos2
5
2
(d)
is given by
Im
1 8 cos2
9
2
55. An object 2.4 m in front of a lens forms a sharp image on a film 12 cm behind the lens. A
glass plate 1cm thick, of refractive index 1.50 is interposed between lens and film with its
plane faces parallel to film. At what distance (from lens) should object shifted to be in
sharp focus on film ?
(a) 7.2 m
(b) 2.4 m
(c) 3.2 m
(d) 5.6 m
56. Two coherent point sources S1 and S2 are separated by a small distance d as shown. The
fringes obtained on the screen will be
(a) points
(b) straight lines
(c) semi-circle
(d)concentric circles
57. A beam of unpolarized light of intensity I0 is passed through a Polaroid A and then
through another Polaroid B which is oriented so that its principal plane makes an angle
of 450 relative to that of A. The intensity of the emergent light is
(a) I0
(b) I0/2
(c) I0/4
(d) I0/8
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58. The graph between angle of deviation δ and angle of incidence (i) for a triangular
prism is represented by
Assertion and Reason
Read the following question and answer as per the direction given below:
(a) Statement I is true ; Statement II is true ; Statement II is the correct explanation of
statement I.
(b) Statement I is true ; Statement II is true; statement II is not the correct explanation
of statement I.
(c) Statement I is true ; Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false; Statement II is true.
59. Statement-I : No current is induced in a metal loop if it is rotated in an electric field.
Statement-II : The electric flux through the loop does not change with time.
60. Statement-I : A parallel beam of light falls on a convex lens. The path of the rays is
shown in Fig. It follows that 1
2.
Statement -II When a ray of light travels from a rarer into a denser medium, it bends
towards the normal and vice-versa.
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Section – III {Chemistry}
61. Total volume of atoms present in a face-centred cubic unit cell of a metal is (r is atomic
radius)
(a)
20 3
r
3
(b)
24 3
r
3
(c)
12 3
r
3
(d)
16 3
r
3
62. How many unit cells are present in a cube shaped ideal crystal of NaCl of mass 1.00 g ?
[Atomic masses : Na = 23, Cl = 35.5]
(a) 2.57
1021
(b) 5.14
1021
(c) 1.28
1021
(d) 1.71 1021
63. The radius ratio in CsCl is 0.93. The expected lattice structure is
(a) tetrahedral
(b) square planar
(c) octahedral
(d)body-centred cubic
64. In a compound, atoms of element Y from ccp lattice and those of element X occupy
2/3 rd of tetrahedral voids. The formula of the compound will be
(a) X4Y3
(b) X2Y3
(c) X2Y
(d) X3Y4
65. Analysis shows that an oxide one of nickel has formula Ni0.98O1.00 . The percentage of
nickel as Ni3+ ions is nearly
(a) 2
66. If
(b) 96
(c) 4
(d) 98
is the degree of dissociation of Na2SO4, the van’t Hoff factor (i) used for calculating
the molecular mass is
(a) 1–2
(b) 1+2
(c) 1
(d) 1 +
67. Depression in freezing point is 6 K for NaCl solution if kf for water is 1.86 K/kg mol. The
moles of NaCl dissolved in 1 kg water is
(a) 3.42
(b) 1.62
(c) 3.24
(d) 1.71
68. Two liquids X and Y from an ideal solution at 300 K, vapour pressure of the solution
containing 1 mole of X and 3 moles of Yis 500 mm Hg. At the same temperature, if 1
mole of Y is further added to this solution, vapour pressure of the solution increases by
10 mm Hg. Vapour pressure (in mm Hg) of X and Y in their pure states will be
respectively
(a) 200 and 300
(b) 300 and 400
(c) 400 and 600
(d) 500 and 600
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69. A binary liquid solution is prepared by mixing n-heptane and ethanol. Which one of the
following statements is correct regarding the behaviour of the solution?
(a) The solution formed is an ideal solution.
(b) The solution is non ideal, showing positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
(c) The solution is non-ideal, showing negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
(d) n-heptane shows positive deviation while ethanol show negative deviation from
Raoult’s law .
70. A 5% solution of sugar cane (mol. wt. = 342) is isotonic with 1% solution of X under
similar conditions. The mol. wt. of X is
(a) 136.2
(b) 68.4
(c) 34.2
(d) 171.2
71. Given the standard reduction potentials Zn2+/Zn=– 0.74 V, Cl2/Cl– =1.36V, H+/2H2 = 0V
and Fe3+/Fe2+ = 0.77 V. The order of increasing strength as reducing agent is
(a) Cl–, Zn, H2, Fe2+ (b) H2, Zn, Fe3+, Cl
(c) Cl–, Fe2+, Zn, H2
(d) Cl–, Fe3+, H2, Zn
72. KI in acetone, undergoes SN2reaction with each P,Q , R and S. The rates of the reaction
vary as
(a) P >Q > R >S
(b) S >P >R >Q
(c) P > R >Q >S
(d) R >P >S >Q
73. If the standard electrode potential of Cu2+/Cu electrode is 0.34 V, what is the electrode
potential at 0.01 M concentration of Cu2+? (T = 298 K)
(a) 0.399V
o
74. Given ECr
3
/Cr
(b) 0.281 V
0.72V, EoFe2
/Fe
(c) 0.222 V
(d) 0.176V
0.42V . The potential for the cell Cr
Cr3 0.1 M Fe2 0.01 M Fe, is
(a) 0.26 V
(b) 0.399 V
(c) –0.339 V
(d) –0.26 V
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75. Which quantities are conserved in all oxidation-reduction reactions?
(a) Charge only
(b) Mass only
(c) Both charge and mass
(d) Neither charge nor mass
76. The activation energies of two reactions are E1 and E2 (E1 > E2). If the temperature of
the system is increased from T1 to T2, the rate constant of the reactions changes from k1
to k’1 in the first reaction and k2 to k’2 in the second reaction. Predict which of the
following expression is correct?
(a)
k'1
k1
k'2
k2
(b)
k'1
k1
k'2
k2
(c)
k '1
k1
k '2
k2
(d)
k'1
k1
k'2
k2
1
77. For the decomposition of a compound AB of 600 K, the following data were obtained
[AB] mol dm–3
Rate of decomposition of
AB in mol dm–3 s–1
0.20
2.76
10–8
0.40
11.0
10–8
0.60
24.75
10–8
The order for the decomposition of AB is
(a) 1.5
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2
78. If k1 = rate constant at temperature T1 and k2= rate constant at temperature T2 for a
first order reaction, then which of the following relations is correct? (Ea : activation
energy)
(a) log
k1
k2
2.303Ea T2 T1
R
T1T2
(b) log
k2
k1
Ea
T2 T1
2.303R T1T2
(c) log
k2
k1
Ea
T1T2
2.303R T2 T1
(d) log
k1
k2
Ea
T1T2
2.303R T2 T1
79. A drop of a solution (volume = 0.05 mL) contains 6 10–7 mol of H+. If the rate of
disappearance of H+ is 6.0
105 mol/L s, how long will it take for H+ to disappear from
the drop
(a) 8.0
10–8 s
(b) 2.0
10–8 s
(c) 6.0
10–6 s
(d) 2.0
10–2 s
16
MOBILE: 9815527721, 4617721
80. A large increase in the rate of reaction for a rise in temperature is due to
(a) lowering of activation energy
(b) increase in the number of collisions
(c) shortening of means free path
(d) increase in the number of activated molecules
81. The coagulating power of electrolyte having ions Na+,Al3+,Ba2+ for arsenic sulphide sol
increases in the order :
(a) Na+< Ba2+< Al3+
(b) Ba2+< Na+< Al3+
(c) Al3+< Na+< Ba2+
(d) Al3+< Ba2+<Na+
82. Methylene blue, from its aqueous solution, is adsorbed on activated charcoal at 250C.
For this process, the correct statement is
(a) The adsorption requires activation at 250C.
(b) The adsorption is accompanied by a decrease in enthalpy.
(c) The adsorption increases with increase of temperature.
(d) The adsorption is irreversible.
83. In which of the following octahedral complex species the magnitude of A will be
maximum ?
(a) [C0 (C2 O4) 6]3– (b) [C0 (H2O) 6]2+
(c) [C0 (NH3) 6]3+
(d)[C0 (CN) 6]3–
(c)[Fe(CN)6]3–
(d)[Co(F6)]3–
84. Which of the following is diamagnetic?
(a)[FeF6]3–
(b)[Co(OX)]3–
85. Which of the statement is wrong?
(a) The stability of hydrides increases from NH3 to BiH3 in group 15 of the periodic
table.
(b) Nitrogen cannot from d
p bond.
(c) Single N–N bond is weaker then the single P–P bond.
(d) N2O4 has two resonance structure
86. Bleaching powder contains a salt of an oxoacid as one of its components. The
anhydride of That oxoacid is
(a) Cl 2 O
(b) Cl2O7
(c) ClO2
(d) Cl 2 O 6
17
MOBILE: 9815527721, 4617721
87. The carbon-based reduction method is NOT used for the extraction of
(a) tin from SnO2
(b) iron from Fe2O3
(c) aluminium from Al2O3
(d) magnesium from MgCO3. CaCO3
88. Sulfide ores are common for the metals
(a) Ag, Cu and Pb
(b) Ag, Cu and Sn
(c) Ag, Mg and Pb
(d) Al, Cu and Pb
Assertion and Reason
Read the following question and answer as per the direction given below:
(a) Statement I is true ; Statement II is true ; Statement II is the correct explanation of
statement I.
(b) Statement I is true ; Statement II is true; statement II is not the correct explanation
of statement I.
(c) Statement I is true ; Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false; Statement II is true.
89. Statement I: Bromobenzene upon reaction with Br2/Fe gives 1, 4-dibromobenzene as the major
product.
Statement II: In bromobenzene, the inductive effect of the bromo group is more dominant than
the mesomeric effect in directing the incoming electriphile.
90. Statement I: H2-O2 fuel cell gives a constant voltage throughout its life.
Statement II: In this fuel cell, H2 reacts with OH– ions, yet the overall concentration of OH– ions
does not change.
ALL THE BEST
18

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