Evolution Review

Transcription

Evolution Review

Name: ________________________ Class: ___________________ Date: __________
Evolution Review
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. Which of the following statements is NOT true about asteroids?
a. They have had little influence on the history of life.
b. Planets swept up most of them during formation of our solar system.
c. Their impacts have produced craters visible in satellite images.
d. One asteroid impacted our planet just prior to the mass extinctions at the K-T boundary.
e. An asteroid impact releases an enormous quantity of energy.
____
2. Scientists began to question the perfection of the Chain of Being because of
a. the discovery of new organisms in new parts of the world.
b. the presence of body parts with no apparent function in some organisms.
c. the existence of fossil forms.
d. similarities in the structures found in different forms of life.
e. all of these
____
3. Large, flightless, long-necked birds
a. are native to three continents.
b. inhabit dry, open grasslands.
c. closely resemble each other in morphology and behavior.
d. illustrate a biogeographic distribution pattern.
e. all of these
____
4. The forelimbs of early mammals are similar in all features except
a. embryonic origin.
b. position on the body.
c. number.
d. function.
e. composition.
____
5. Fossils
a. are found in underground layers called strata.
b. are distributed underground, with the oldest forms near the top.
c. have more complex structures the deeper they are buried.
d. are the same throughout the world no matter where they are found.
e. that are most like living organisms are found deepest in the ground.
____
6. In the nineteenth century, prevailing beliefs came into conflict with findings from all BUT
a. biogeography.
b. comparative morphology.
c. the fossil record.
d. plate tectonics.
e. global exploration.
1
ID: A
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____
7. Cuvier, an anatomist and paleontologist, proposed that
a. all present-day organisms have descended, with adaptations, from one-or possibly a
few-original organisms.
b. the earth's history has been marked by several periods when destruction of populations
was widespread and that, after each such period, the earth was repopulated.
c. evolutionary changes in organisms are caused by use and disuse.
d. although evolution is responsible for all the changes that happen to species, one center of
creation resulted in the original members of each species.
e. none of these
____
8. Lamarck's contribution to the theory of evolution is the concept of
a. natural selection.
b. catastrophism.
c. inheritance of acquired characteristics.
d. mutation.
e. geographic distribution of organisms.
____
9. Which of the following has no part in today's concept of natural selection?
a. inheritance of acquired characteristics
b. competition for limited resources
c. inherited variation
d. overproduction of offspring
e. survival of the best adapted
____ 10. Glyptodonts are fossil forms that resemble
a. ostriches.
b. armadillos.
c. kangaroos.
d. turtles.
e. sloths.
____ 11. Darwin's finches are found on the ____ Islands.
a. Galápagos
b. Canary
c. Philippine
d. Hawaiian
e. Aleutian
____ 12. Which of the following was NOT one of Darwin's observations?
a. Most individuals have an equal chance to survive and reproduce.
b. Changes in organisms are gradual and take place over long periods of time.
c. Members of the same species may exhibit considerable variation.
d. Some characteristics are heritable and passed on to their offspring.
e. Some characteristics afford their possessor a better chance of survival.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 13. Natural selection operates to produce changes in
a. individuals.
b. populations.
c. kingdoms.
d. phyla.
e. animals only.
____ 14. Which of the following organisms would you expect to find preserved as a fossil?
a. a jellyfish
b. a shelled arthropod such as a trilobite
c. an earthworm
d. a nematode
e. a protistan such as an amoeba
____ 15. Which of the following habitats is most likely to be rich in fossils?
a. eroding hillsides
b. deserts
c. polar ice caps
d. a bed of a former shallow sea
e. rocky plateau
____ 16. The time it takes for half of a radioisotope's atoms to decay
a. cannot be calculated.
b. is used to construct the geologic time scale.
c. is its half-life.
d. is the same for uranium 238 and carbon 14.
e. all of these
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 17. This illustration shows that after two half-lives ____ percent of the parent radioisotope has decayed.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
100
75
50
25
0
____ 18. Macroevolution refers to changes in all but which one of the following?
a. phyla
b. classes
c. species
d. genera
e. domains
____ 19. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major intervals in the geologic time scale?
a. Mesozoic
b. Proterozoic
c. Carboniferous
d. Cenozoic
e. Paleozoic
____ 20. The large, ancient land mass that contained all the continents is called
a. Laurasia.
b. Pangea.
c. Gondwana.
d. Atlantis.
e. Europa.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 21. Diversity of living organisms would be increased by
a. continental drift.
b. the formation of Pangea.
c. sea-floor spreading.
d. the movement of Gondwana.
e. all but "the formation of Pangea"
____ 22. The five-toed limb of stem reptiles became modified into a limb ____ in vertebrates that followed.
a. suitable for high-speed running
b. suitable for digging
c. suitable for swimming
d. with four fingers and an opposable thumb
e. all of these
____ 23. Which of the following are considered more primitive based upon the structure of their limbs?
a. bats
b. early reptiles
c. porpoises
d. penguins
e. birds
____ 24. The bones in the forelimbs of a mammal
a. can often be traced to a common ancestor.
b. offer no evidence to support the theory of evolution.
c. perform the same function no matter which species they are in.
d. may exhibit either analogy or homology but not both when compared to the forelimb of
another animal.
e. show convergence with some invertebrate structures.
____ 25. The plant species below closely resemble each other but are not closely related. They are native to different
continents. What factor explains why they are so much alike?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
morphological convergence
continental drift
similar ecological requirements
natural selection
all except continental drift
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 26. Which of these statements about primate evolution is false?
a. Ninety-eight percent of human DNA is identical with that of chimpanzees.
b. The Alu elements group of transposons are found only in primates.
c. The Alu elements group of transposons affect gene expression for proteins that control
growth and development.
d. Proportional differences between adult chimpanzee and adult human skulls may be due
to modification of genes that influence growth rates.
e. none of these
____ 27. Automated gene sequencing
a. provides a rapid method for accumulating large amounts of data.
b. is used to compare genomes of two species.
c. yields data accessible to scientists around the world.
d. reveals that 50 percent of fruit fly genes have counterparts in humans.
e. all of these
____ 28. Comparisons of protein similarity among species can reveal the degree of genetic kinship because
a. the number of protein variations is limited.
b. specific amino acids are dictated by known nucleotide sequences.
c. gel electrophoresis converts proteins to nucleotides.
d. protein can be hybridized with DNA.
e. DNA is made by directions stored in proteins.
____ 29. DNA-DNA hybridization studies
a. depend upon determining the exact sequence of nucleotides in a gene.
b. can be done using a simple tissue homogenizer and computer-assisted analysis.
c. involve generating new nucleotide sequences by using ultracentrifugation.
d. measure the amount of heat necessary to separate two single strands of DNA that have
been allowed to fuse together.
e. give little clue as to how genes mutate.
____ 30. Which mutations are NOT subject to natural selection?
a. lethal
b. physiological
c. neutral
d. morphological
e. beneficial
____ 31. Neutral mutations
a. are not subjected to selection.
b. occur at different rates at different times during evolution.
c. confer a disadvantage.
d. do not occur; either a gene enhances survival or it does not.
e. account for the difference between hemoglobin in normal blood and that found in
sickle-cell anemia.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 32. The molecular clock concept is based on the idea that
a. neutral mutations occur at regular rates.
b. genetic relatedness can be determined by timing antibody-antigen reactions.
c. radioactive isotopes decay at a constant rate.
d. speciation is a rapid event.
e. cytochrome c is very similar in primates.
____ 33. Four of the five people listed below were biologists. Select the exception.
a. Lamarck
b. Lyell
c. Wallace
d. Cuvier
e. Darwin
____ 34. Four of the five choices below support the concept of evolution. Select the exception.
a. biogeography
b. fossils
c. comparative anatomy
d. natural selection
e. catastrophism
____ 35. Four of the five habitats listed below favor fossil preservation. Select the exception.
a. deserts
b. swamp
c. tar pits
d. seafloor
e. caves
____ 36. Four of the five processes below have markedly influenced the evolution of life. Select the exception.
a. continental drift
b. natural selection
c. inheritance of acquired characteristics
d. geological catastrophes
e. asteroid impacts
____ 37. Rats
a. are carriers of human pathogens.
b. spread bubonic plague via infected fleas.
c. infest rice fields, significantly reducing the yield.
d. cause billions of dollars of annual economic loss.
e. all of these
____ 38. Which of the following is(are) a group of interbreeding individuals of the same species that are
reproductively isolated from other species?
a. individuals
b. species
c. population
d. polyploids
e. all of these
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 39. Members of a population would be least likely to have which of the following in common?
a. phenotypes
b. morphological traits
c. genotypes
d. physiological traits
e. behavioral traits
____ 40. Which of these statements is true?
a. Environment can readily alter some genotypes.
b. Genotype is manifested in phenotype.
c. Genetic variation is easier seen than phenotypic variation.
d. Variation dies with individuals.
e. Phenotype is seen physically in the genotype.
____ 41. New alleles arise by
a. mutation.
b. migration.
c. genetic drift.
d. random mating.
e. independent assortment.
____ 42. Introduction of previously nonexistent genes into a population may be accomplished by
a. nonrandom mating.
b. mutation.
c. sexual recombination.
d. the founder effect.
e. changes in chromosome structure.
____ 43. Which is NOT true about gene mutations?
a. All are transmitted to the next generation.
b. They are rare but their rates can be predicted.
c. Those with beneficial effects will be favored by natural selection.
d. Many reduce an individual's chance of surviving and reproducing.
e. Those with neutral effects neither help nor hurt the individual.
____ 44. Microevolution is the result of
a. chance variation.
b. change in gene frequency.
c. mutation.
d. natural selection.
e. all of these
____ 45. Genetic equilibrium and allele frequencies are maintained by all EXCEPT which one of the following?
a. development of isolating mechanisms
b. large population interbreeding freely
c. differential survival and reproduction
d. random mating
e. absence of mutations
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 46. The genetic equilibrium of a population can be upset by all EXCEPT which of the following?
a. mutations
b. migration
c. random mating
d. genetic drift
e. natural selection
____ 47. If the frequency of expression of a recessive trait in a population is 16 percent, the frequency of the recessive
allele is what percent?
a. 16
b. 25
c. 40
d. 50
e. 67
____ 48. Directional selection occurs when
a. the environment controls which organisms will survive.
b. humans determine which organisms will survive.
c. the extremes of the population have a lesser chance to survive.
d. the extremes of the population have a better chance to survive.
e. the organisms on one extreme of the population have a better chance to survive than
those on the other extreme.
____ 49. Rock pocket mice of the Sonoran desert
a. are nocturnal feeders.
b. live in both tawny-colored granite outcroppings and dark basalt from old lava flows.
c. are camouflaged from predators by their fur color.
d. that are dark-colored have a DNA sequence coding for fur color that differs from that of
their tawny relatives.
e. all of these
____ 50. Directional selection is demonstrated in the
a. color of peppered moths in England.
b. development of resistance to insecticides.
c. development of resistance to antibiotics.
d. coat color of rock pocket mice in Arizona.
e. all of these
____ 51. Stabilizing selection occurs when
a. the environment controls which organisms will survive.
b. humans determine which organisms will survive.
c. the extremes of the population have a lesser chance to survive.
d. the extremes of the population have a better chance to survive.
e. the organisms on one extreme of the population have a better chance to survive than
those on the other extreme.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 52. In an unchanging environment selection in a well-adapted population is
a. directional.
b. disruptive.
c. stabilizing.
d. absent.
e. random.
____ 53. Human infants of low or very high birth weights are less likely to survive than those of average weight. This
outcome is an example of ____ selection.
a. directional
b. stabilizing
c. balanced polymorphism
d. disruptive
e. gender
____ 54. In a certain bird species, clutch size (the number of eggs laid by a female in one breeding season) ranges from
four to eight, and the most frequent clutch size is six. This phenomenon is an example of
a. sexual selection.
b. stabilizing selection.
c. disruptive selection.
d. directional selection.
e. divergent selection.
____ 55. In stabilizing selection
a. differential survival and reproduction favor the extremes of the population.
b. humans are the chief factor controlling which organisms survive and reproduce.
c. the most common type of organisms survive and reproduce.
d. the characteristics of a population move in one direction or another through time.
e. variability is encouraged in a population and unusual forms are more common.
____ 56. Sexual dimorphism has arisen as a result of
a. stabilizing selection.
b. heterozygote superiority.
c. kin selection.
d. sexual selection.
e. directional selection.
____ 57. For most species that exhibit sexual dimorphism the selection of a mate is the responsibility of the
a. male.
b. parents.
c. female.
d. larger individual, no matter the species.
e. more colorful individual.
____ 58. Research shows that in the case of the orchid and its pollinator wasp discussed in the text,
a. wasps are attracted to the orchid because the flower secretes a sex-attractant molecule.
b. wasps receive nectar when they attempt to copulate with the flowers.
c. several species of wasps compete to pollinate the orchids.
d. a female wasp waits on the orchid flower for a male to arrive and initiate courtship.
e. female wasps are exploited by their interactions with the orchid.
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 59. Balanced polymorphism is a type of
a. disruptive selection.
b. sexual selection.
c. directional selection.
d. reproductive isolation.
e. stabilizing selection.
____ 60. The evolutionary force that operates primarily through chance is
a. natural selection.
b. genetic drift.
c. isolation.
d. mating preference.
e. gene flow.
____ 61. Genetic drift
a. leads to a loss of diversity in a population.
b. requires small populations.
c. occurs in populations with the founder effect.
d. occurs following a bottleneck.
e. all of these
____ 62. Island populations do NOT exhibit which of the following when compared to the mainland populations from
which they are derived?
a. greater variability
b. greater extinction rates
c. fewer heterozygous loci
d. large chance fluctuations in allele frequencies
e. less genetic drift
____ 63. What accounts for the fact that polydactylism is prevalent and Tay-Sachs disease virtually absent in one
human population in the United States while Tay-Sachs disease is prevalent and polydactylism virtually
absent in another?
a. Natural selection has promoted these differences because humans live in many different
environments.
b. Mutation rates differ among different loci.
c. There is little gene flow between the two populations.
d. The populations are small, and therefore genetic drift is a major factor in the
determination of allele frequencies.
e. none of these
____ 64. Llamas
a. are native to the Andes.
b. have more air sacs and blood vessels than humans, who live at low elevations.
c. have hemoglobin with higher affinity for oxygen than do their lower-elevation
dromedary camel relatives.
d. may be pre-adapted to live at high altitudes.
e. all of these
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 65. Four of the five characteristics listed below are those of an unchanging, nonevolving population. Select the
exception.
a. random mating
b. no mutation
c. differential survival
d. no migration or gene flow
e. infinitely large population
____ 66. Four of the five choices listed below are types of selection exhibited by nature. Select the exception.
a. artificial
b. disruptive
c. stabilizing
d. directional
e. sexual
____ 67. Four of the five choices listed below are examples of directional selection. Select the exception.
a. pesticide resistance
b. sexual dimorphism
c. wing color in peppered moths
d. coat color in rock pocket mice
e. antibiotic resistance
____ 68. Four of the five choices listed below can upset genetic equilibrium. Select the exception.
a. interbreeding
b. genetic drift
c. mutation
e. gene flow
____ 69. Kauai, the first of the big islands of the Hawaiian Archipelago, rose from the sea more than ____ years ago.
a. 5 billion
b. 1 billion
c. 5 million
d. 1 million
e. 400,000
____ 70. The pioneer finches that colonized the island of Kauai thrived on the ____ of the native plants.
a. leaves
b. nectar
c. seeds
d. fruits
e. all of these
____ 71. Over time, in response to different selection pressures on the various islands of the Hawaiian Archipelago,
populations of finches evolved different ____, producing the various families of Hawaiian honeycreepers.
a. bill sizes
b. bill shapes
c. feather coloration and patterns
d. territorial songs
e. all of these
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 72. The word "species" is Latin for
a. group.
b. kind.
c. division.
d. type.
e. collection.
____ 73. Members of the same species must
a. look alike.
b. be reproductively isolated from one another.
c. share the same gene pool.
d. resist interbreeding.
e. produce the same variations.
____ 74. Complete reproductive isolation is evidence that what has occurred?
a. extinction
b. speciation
c. polyploidy
d. hybridization
e. gene flow
____ 75. Speciation occurs
a. after populations become reproductively isolated and diverge.
b. when mutations generate observable differences.
c. when transitional forms develop between different populations.
d. when natural selection pressures reach their maximum.
e. all of these
____ 76. The inability of bees to pollinate the flowers of certain sage plants is an example of
a. temporal isolation.
b. hybrid inviability.
c. mechanical isolation.
d. gamete mortality.
e. behavioral isolation.
____ 77. Postzygotic reproductive isolation occurs
a. just after the union of the egg and sperm nuclei.
b. during embryo development.
c. during fetal development.
d. after birth.
e. any of these
____ 78. Members of two different bird species mate and produce viable, fertile offspring. Members of neither parent
species recognize the courtship song of the hybrids. The hybrids are subject to ____.
a. mechanical isolation
b. gamete mortality
c. behavioral isolation
d. ecological isolation
e. hybrid inviability
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 79. Allopatric speciation requires
a. accelerated gene flow.
b. physical separation.
c. physical diversity.
d. behavioral diversity.
e. all of these
____ 80. After allopatric speciation, individuals of the daughter species
a. will merge into a single species.
b. can mate and produce fertile offspring.
c. will reestablish gene flow between the species.
d. will interbreed to produce a new species.
e. none of these
____ 81. Whether a geographic barrier can block gene flow depends on an organism's
a. means of travel.
b. speed of travel.
c. inclination to disperse.
d. range of travel.
e. all of these
____ 82. Speciation caused by a change in the course of a river is an example of ____ speciation.
a. divergent
b. parapatric
c. allopatric
d. convergent
e. sympatric
____ 83. Speciation caused by the separation of the continents is
a. divergence.
b. parapatry.
c. gene flow.
d. allopatry.
e. sympatry.
____ 84. Sympatric speciation occurs
a. before allopatric speciation.
b. together with allopatric speciation.
c. after allopatric speciation.
d. within the home range.
e. outside the home range.
____ 85. Which is NOT necessary for sympatric speciation?
a. organisms living together in same location
b. a common home range
c. geographic barriers
d. existing interbreeding population
e. reproductively mature individuals
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 86. The sympatric speciation that produced the Barombi Mbo cichlid species may have resulted from
a. mechanical isolation.
b. spatial isolation.
c. temporal isolation.
d. ecological isolation.
e. gametic mortality.
____ 87. Which of the following can result in speciation within a few generations?
a. development of a physical barrier
b. polyploidy
c. postzygotic isolating mechanisms
d. change in environmental conditions
e. the introduction of a new predator into an area
____ 88. Autopolyploids contain ____ the number of parental chromosomes and are usually artificially produced
through the application of ____.
a. triple; colchicine
b. double; heat
c. double; colchicine
d. triple; heat
e. double; radiation
____ 89. Polyploid species are least common in
a. flowering plants.
b. mollusks.
c. insects.
d. conifers.
e. mammals.
Figure 19-1
Refer to the figure illustrating the evolution of bread wheats, to answer the following questions.
____ 90. Refer to Figure 19-1. Which species of wheat is the first polyploid in the sequence?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 91. Which of the following is true concerning the hybrids produced by parapatric speciation?
a. They are more fit than individuals on either side of the contact zone.
b. They appear commonly on either side of the contact zone.
c. They are more likely to breed on either side of the contact zone.
d. They are selected against in the contact zone.
e. none of these
____ 92. The border across which genes can flow between two populations is called the
a. contact zone.
b. parapatric zone.
c. allopatric zone.
d. sympatric zone.
e. none of these
____ 93. The traditional evolutionary diagrams are in the form of
a. interlocking circles.
b. a wheel and spokes.
c. a set of parallel lines.
d. a tree.
e. segmented bars.
____ 94. The gradual model of evolutionary change holds that most morphological change occurs
a. gradually but without development of new species.
b. gradually at first, but rapidly after a new species is formed.
c. gradually during the process of speciation.
d. rapidly at first, but gradually after a new species is formed.
e. gradually for large organisms and rapidly for small ones.
____ 95. The punctuation model of evolutionary change proposes that most morphological change occurs
a. rapidly but without development of new species.
b. rapidly at first, but gradually after a new species is formed.
c. rapidly, leading to new species.
d. gradually at first, but rapidly after a new species is formed.
e. gradually for large organisms and rapidly for small ones.
____ 96. The punctuation model of speciation assumes that ____ favor(s) rapid speciation.
a. directional selection
b. genetic drift
c. the founder effect
d. bottlenecks
e. any of these
____ 97. All of the following may contribute to adaptive radiation within a lineage EXCEPT
a. extinction of competitors.
b. new structural and functional characteristics.
c. key innovations.
d. a competitive edge over other species.
e. genetic stability.
16
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 98. By some estimates, more than ____ percent of the species that ever lived are extinct.
a. 50
b. 75
c. 80
d. 90
e. 99
____ 99. Mass extinctions are usually followed by
a. periods of recovery and adaptive radiations.
b. global changes in terrestrial environments.
c. global changes in marine environments.
d. global changes in climate.
e. a series of smaller extinctions in rapid succession.
____ 100. Which of the following is the correct order of taxa from most inclusive to least inclusive?
a. kingdom >>> phylum >>> order >>> class >>> family >>> genus >>> species
b. kingdom >>> phylum >>> class >>> order >>> family >>> genus >>> species
c. kingdom >>> phylum >>> family >>> order >>> class >>> genus >>> species
d. kingdom >>> phylum >>> class >>> order >>> genus >>> family >>> species
e. kingdom >>> phylum >>> order >>> family >>> class >>> genus >>> species
____ 101. Cladograms illustrating "who came from whom" are drawn as a main
a. vertical bar with bars projecting at various angles from it.
b. vertical bar with horizontal bars connecting vertical bars to it.
c. diagonal bar with vertical bars projecting out from it that may have bars projecting at
angles from them.
d. diagonal bar with parallel bars connected to it by horizontal bars.
e. vertical bar with parallel bars connected to it by diagonal bars.
____ 102. In constructing a cladogram relating sharks, crocodiles, mammals, and birds, the reference point may be
a. starfish.
b. lampreys.
c. squids.
d. crayfish.
e. earthworms.
____ 103. The "outgroup" in constructing a cladogram has ____ derived trait(s) when compared to the other organisms.
a. one
b. the most
c. an equal number of
d. the fewest
e. no
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
Figure 19-2
Refer to the figure illustrating a cladogram, to answer the following questions.
____ 104. Refer to Figure 19-2. The derived trait represented by label "C" is
a. lungs.
b. hair.
c. a notochord.
d. jaws.
e. paired appendages.
____ 105. Refer to Figure 19-2. The derived trait represented by label "D" is
a. lungs.
b. hair.
c. a notochord.
d. jaws.
e. paired appendages.
____ 106. Which of the following pairs indicates the closest macroevolutionary link among the bacteria according to
the evolutionary history tree in the text?
a. green bacteria; spirochaetes
b. chlamydias; cyanobacteria
c. green sulfur; green nonsulfur
d. spirochaetes; proteobacteria
e. proteobacteria; cyanobacteria
____ 107. Which of the following pairs indicates the closest macroevolutionary link among the plants according to the
evolutionary history tree in the text?
a. lycophytes; ferns
b. whisk ferns; horsetails
c. lycophytes; mosses
d. hornworts; horsetails
e. ferns; ginkgos
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 108. Which of the following pairs indicates the closest macroevolutionary link among the fungi according to the
evolutionary history tree in the text?
a. lycophytes; ferns
b. chytrids; zygomycetes
c. sac fungi; club fungi
d. zygomycetes; club fungi
e. zygomycetes; microsporidians
____ 109. Four of the five choices listed describe a species. Select the exception.
a. interbreeding
b. sexual reproduction
c. natural
d. population
e. behavior
____ 110. Four of the five choices listed below are types of prezygotic isolating mechanisms. Select the exception.
a. temporal
b. hybrid inviability
c. mechanical
d. ecological
e. gamete
____ 111. Four of the five choices listed below relate to speciation. Select the exception.
a. postzygotic
b. allopatric
c. parapatric
d. punctuation
e. sympatric
Matching
Select the most appropriate choice for each person.
a. wrote Principles of Geology
b. developed the theory of catastrophism
c. believed that giraffes have long necks because their short-necked ancestors stretched
their necks and passed this change on to their offspring
d. was a naturalist who sailed on the Beagle and studied finches
e. wrote an essay relating population size to competition for limited resources
f. natural historian and author; early ideas of Chain of Being
____ 112. Aristotle
____ 113. Cuvier
____ 114. Darwin
____ 115. Lamarck
____ 116. Lyell
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 117. Malthus
Choose the most appropriate lettered item for each blank.
a. body structures similar in function but of distant lineage
b. recognizable evidence of the past
c. fast and quantitative method of determining evolutionary relationships
d. modification of body structures from a common ancestor
e. use of accumulated neutral mutations to determine past evolutionary events
____ 118. analogy
____ 119. automated gene sequencing
____ 120. fossil
____ 121. molecular clock
____ 122. morphological divergence
Choose the most appropriate letter for each.
a. a reference point that implies stability of gene frequencies through generations
b. encompasses all of those actually or potentially interbreeding populations that are
reproductively isolated from other such groups
c. the genes of an entire population
d. the frequency of homozygous dominants in a population
e. the frequencies of dominant and recessive alleles in a population
f. the frequency of heterozygotes in a population
g. the frequency of homozygous recessives in a population
h. HbA and HbS in regions where malaria is found
i. pesticide-resistant pests
____ 123. p  q
____ 124. species
____ 125. directional selection
____ 126. gene pool
____ 127. balanced polymorphism
____ 128. p2
____ 129. 2pq
____ 130. genetic equilibrium
____ 131. q2
20
Name: ________________________
ID: A
For the following statements select the best choice of the four evolutionary processes listed.
a. mutation
b. gene flow
c. genetic drift
____ 132. This is most likely to lead to the loss of genetic variation in a small population.
____ 133. This process produces new genetic variation within a species.
____ 134. This process can rapidly offset the effects of genetic isolation when two populations come into secondary
contact.
____ 135. The reduced contribution of one phenotype in comparison to another to the next generation is an example of
this.
____ 136. The occurrence of mimicry is best explained as the ultimate result of this process.
Choose the most appropriate response for each statement.
a. geographic separation of two populations accompanied by gradual speciation
b. encompasses all of those actually or potentially interbreeding populations that are
reproductively isolated from other such groups
c. a population occupying the same home range undergoes reproductive isolation
d. morphological changes compressed into brief periods followed by speciation
e. branching pattern of speciation
f. catastrophic, global loss of species
g. a burst of microevolutionary activity within a lineage
h. inheritance of three or more sets of chromosomes
i. prevents gene flow between populations
____ 137. cladogenesis
____ 138. species
____ 139. isolating mechanism
____ 140. sympatric speciation
____ 141. polyploidy
____ 142. punctuation model
____ 143. mass extinction
____ 144. allopatric speciation
____ 145. adaptive radiation
21
Name: ________________________
ID: A
Respond to the statements with reference to the four microevolutionary processes listed.
a. mutation
b. gene flow
c. genetic drift
____ 146. erodes species cohesion
____ 147. original source of alleles
____ 148. preserves species cohesion
____ 149. preserves or erodes species cohesion depending on environmental pressures
____ 150. results from differential survival and reproduction
22
ID: A
Evolution Review
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS:
TOP:
2. ANS:
TOP:
3. ANS:
TOP:
4. ANS:
TOP:
5. ANS:
TOP:
6. ANS:
TOP:
7. ANS:
8. ANS:
9. ANS:
10. ANS:
TOP:
11. ANS:
TOP:
12. ANS:
TOP:
13. ANS:
TOP:
14. ANS:
TOP:
15. ANS:
TOP:
16. ANS:
TOP:
17. ANS:
TOP:
18. ANS:
TOP:
19. ANS:
TOP:
20. ANS:
TOP:
21. ANS:
TOP:
22. ANS:
TOP:
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
IMPACTS, ISSUES: MEASURING TIME
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
EARLY BELIEFS, CONFOUNDING DISCOVERIES
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
TOP: A FLURRY OF NEW THEORIES
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
DARWIN, WALLACE, AND NATURAL SELECTION
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
FOSSILS--EVIDENCE OF ANCIENT LIFE
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
FOSSILS--EVIDENCE OF ANCIENT LIFE
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
DATING PIECES OF THE PUZZLE
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
DRIFTING CONTINENTS, CHANGING SEAS
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
DRIFTING CONTINENTS, CHANGING SEAS
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
DIVERGENCES FROM A SHARED ANCESTOR
1
ID: A
23. ANS:
TOP:
24. ANS:
TOP:
25. ANS:
TOP:
26. ANS:
TOP:
27. ANS:
TOP:
28. ANS:
TOP:
29. ANS:
TOP:
30. ANS:
TOP:
31. ANS:
TOP:
32. ANS:
TOP:
33. ANS:
34. ANS:
35. ANS:
36. ANS:
37. ANS:
TOP:
38. ANS:
TOP:
39. ANS:
TOP:
40. ANS:
TOP:
41. ANS:
TOP:
42. ANS:
TOP:
43. ANS:
TOP:
44. ANS:
TOP:
45. ANS:
TOP:
46. ANS:
TOP:
47. ANS:
TOP:
48. ANS:
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
CHANGES IN PATTERNS OF DEVELOPMENT
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
CLUES IN DNA, RNA, AND PROTEINS
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
OBJ: Selecting the Exception
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
IMPACTS, ISSUES: RISE OF THE SUPER RATS
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
INDIVIDUALS DON'T EVOLVE, POPULATIONS DO
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
FOCUS ON SCIENCE: WHEN IS A POPULATION NOT EVOLVING
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
TOP: DIRECTIONAL SELECTION
2
ID: A
49. ANS: E
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
50. ANS: E
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
51. ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
TOP: SELECTION AGAINST OR IN FAVOR OF EXTREME PHENOTYPES
52. ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
53. ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
54. ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
55. ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
56. ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
TOP: MAINTAINING VARIATION IN A POPULATION
57. ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
58. ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
59. ANS: E
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
60. ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
TOP: GENETIC DRIFT--THE CHANCE CHANGES
61. ANS: E
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
62. ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
63. ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
TOP: GENE FLOW
64. ANS: E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
TOP: CONNECTIONS: ADAPTATION TO WHAT? A WORD OF CAUTION
65. ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
66. ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
67. ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
68. ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
69. ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
TOP: IMPACTS, ISSUES: LAST OF THE HONEYCREEPERS?
70. ANS: E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
71. ANS: E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
72. ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
TOP: REPRODUCTIVE ISOLATION, MAYBE NEW SPECIES
73. ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
74. ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
75. ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
3
ID: A
76. ANS:
TOP:
77. ANS:
TOP:
78. ANS:
TOP:
79. ANS:
TOP:
80. ANS:
TOP:
81. ANS:
TOP:
82. ANS:
TOP:
83. ANS:
TOP:
84. ANS:
85. ANS:
86. ANS:
87. ANS:
88. ANS:
89. ANS:
90. ANS:
91. ANS:
92. ANS:
93. ANS:
TOP:
94. ANS:
TOP:
95. ANS:
TOP:
96. ANS:
TOP:
97. ANS:
TOP:
98. ANS:
TOP:
99. ANS:
TOP:
100. ANS:
TOP:
101. ANS:
TOP:
102. ANS:
TOP:
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REPRODUCTIVE ISOLATION, MAYBE NEW SPECIES
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
THE MAIN MODEL FOR SPECIATION
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
TOP: OTHER SPECIATION MODELS
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
PATTERNS OF SPECIATION AND EXTINCTION
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
ORGANIZING INFORMATION ABOUT SPECIES
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
ORGANIZING INFORMATION ABOUT SPECIES
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
FOCUS ON SCIENCE: HOW TO CONSTRUCT A CLADOGRAM
4
ID: A
103. ANS:
TOP:
104. ANS:
TOP:
105. ANS:
TOP:
106. ANS:
TOP:
107. ANS:
TOP:
108. ANS:
TOP:
109. ANS:
110. ANS:
111. ANS:
D
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
PREVIEW OF LIFE'S EVOLUTIONARY HISTORY
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
C
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
E
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
MATCHING
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
F
B
D
C
A
E
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
Moderate
Moderate
Moderate
Moderate
Moderate
Moderate
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
A
C
B
E
D
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
Moderate
Moderate
Moderate
Moderate
Moderate
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
E
B
I
C
H
D
F
A
G
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
Difficult
Difficult
Difficult
Difficult
Difficult
Difficult
Difficult
Difficult
Difficult
132.
133.
134.
135.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
C
A
B
D
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
Moderate
Easy
Moderate
Moderate
5
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
Classification Questions
ID: A
136. ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF:
Moderate
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
E
B
I
C
H
D
F
A
G
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
Difficult
Difficult
Difficult
Difficult
Difficult
Difficult
Difficult
Difficult
Difficult
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
C
A
B
D
D
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
Moderate
Easy
Moderate
Difficult
Difficult
6
OBJ: Classification Questions
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:

Evolution Review

Transcription

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