CRCT Preparation Workbook

Transcription

CRCT Preparation Workbook
TO THE STUDENT
Do you need to practice answering test questions? If so, this booklet
will help you. The CRCT Preparation Workbook is an important tool for
helping you prepare for the Criterion-Referenced Competency Test.
The workbook has multiple worksheet pages of questions for each chapter
in your textbook. Use these worksheets to test your understanding of
chapter concepts and to practice answering questions in the CRCT format.
Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston
All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced or transmitted in any form
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storage and retrieval system, without permission in writing from the publisher.
Teachers using HOLT SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY may photocopy complete pages in
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HOLT and the "Owl Design" are trademarks licensed to Holt, Rinehart and Winston,
registered in the United States of America and/or other jurisdictions.
Printed in the United States of America
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copies is strictly prohibited.
Possession of this publication in print format does not entitle users to convert this
publication, or any portion of it, into electronic format.
ISBN-13: 978-0-03-093541-1
ISBN-10: 0-03-093541-5
[Print Code TK 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 14 5 03 02 01 00]
Contents
CRCT Preparation
The World of Physical Science ............................................................................................ 1
The Properties of Matter ........................................................................................................ 4
States of Matter ........................................................................................................................ 7
Elements, Compounds, and Mixtures .............................................................................. 10
Matter in Motion ..................................................................................................................... 14
Forces and Motion ................................................................................................................ 18
Forces in Fluids ..................................................................................................................... 22
Work and Machines .............................................................................................................. 25
Energy and Energy Resources .......................................................................................... 28
Heat and Heat Technology ................................................................................................. 31
Introduction to Atoms .......................................................................................................... 34
The Periodic Table ................................................................................................................ 38
Chemical Bonding ................................................................................................................. 41
Chemical Reactions .............................................................................................................. 44
Chemical Compounds ......................................................................................................... 47
Atomic Energy ....................................................................................................................... 50
Introduction to Electricity ................................................................................................... 53
Electromagnetism ................................................................................................................. 56
Electronic Technology ......................................................................................................... 60
The Energy of Waves ........................................................................................................... 63
The Nature of Sound ............................................................................................................ 67
The Nature of Light ............................................................................................................... 70
Light and Our World .............................................................................................................. 73
Original content Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. Additions and changes to the original content are the responsibility of the instructor.
Holt Science and Technology
iii
Table of Contents
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Use the diagram below to answer questions 1 and 2.
Examples of Acids and Bases
Strong base
Weak base
Neutral
Weak acid
Strong acid
Drain cleaner
Baking soda
Pure water
Vinegar
Hydrochloric acid
Results of Litmus Paper
Test on Four Substances
Substances
Litmus paper color
1
2
3
4
Red
Pink
Light blue
Dark blue
_____ 1. Acids turn blue litmus paper red, and bases turn red litmus paper blue.
Look at the table above. What is the identity of substance 3?
A. drain cleaner
B. vinegar
C. hydrochloric acid
D. baking soda
_____ 2. What would happen when water is tested using a piece of blue litmus
paper?
A. The litmus paper would not change color.
B. The litmus paper would turn pink.
C. The litmus paper would turn red.
D. The litmus paper would turn light blue.
1
The World of Physical Science
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
CRCT Preparation continued
_____ 3. After swimming in the ocean, Jorge sits in the sun to dry off. He
notices small white crystals on his skin. Analyze the strengths and
weaknesses of the following explanations. Which is the most
reasonable explanation for what has happened to Jorge?
A. The water evaporated and attracted dust to Jorge’s skin.
B. The white crystals are dead skin cells that are being shed.
C. Jorge has developed a rare skin disorder.
D. Salt that is dissolved in the water remained on Jorge’s skin after the
water evaporated.
_____ 4. What type of model would you use to represent the big bang theory?
A. physical
B. conceptual
C. mathematical
D. analogical
_____ 5. Which factor would have the least effect on the results of an
experiment designed to determine which brand of bar soap most
effectively kills bacteria?
A. the color of the soap
B. the volume of soap used
C. the surface on which the soap is used
D. the ingredients in the soap
_____ 6. An environmental scientist suspects that acid precipitation is beginning
to affect certain lakes in Georgia. What is the best way to test this
hypothesis?
A. to do library research on the harmful effects of acid precipitation in
lakes
B. to experiment with acid precipitation on water plants native to
Georgia
C. to count the number of water-plant species found in a Georgia lake
D. to collect lakewater samples and test the pH of each sample
_____ 7. Which of the following statements about the records made during a
scientific investigation is true?
A. Records should be recorded clearly and accurately.
B. Records should be predicted based on the hypothesis.
C. Records should be modified to support the hypothesis.
D Records should be protected from being seen by other scientists.
_____ 8. Katie wants to learn how various amounts of sunlight affect plants.
Which of the following variables is the only one that she should change?
A. the type of plant
B. the amount of light
C. the volume of water
D. the quantity of nutrients
2
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Use the diagram below to answer question 9.
_____ 9. While collecting data during an experiment on plant growth, Bill sees
the situation shown above. How many centimeters taller than the plant
on the left is the plant on the right?
A. 0.7 cm
B. 2.2 cm
C. 2.9 cm
D. 5.1 cm
OPEN RESPONSE
10. Anthony is designing an experiment to test the effect of water temperature on
the solubility of sugar. Describe one way that Anthony might do his
experiment. Remember to include a list of variables that he should control.
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11. The southern end of the Appalachian Trail is located in Georgia’s Amicalola
Falls State Park. Laishan works as a park ranger in that park. Describe three
ways that Laishan can use science in her job.
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3
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Use the table below to answer questions 1–2.
Substance
State*
Density*
(g/cm3)
Color
Helium
gas
0.0001663
colorless
Iron pyrite
solid
5.02
metallic yellow
Mercury
liquid
13.55
metallic gray
Oxygen
gas
Water
liquid
0.001331
colorless
1.00
colorless
*at 20°C and 1.0 atm
_____ 1. Look at the table above. Which of the following statements about
mercury is true?
A. It is the densest gas listed.
B. Its density is less than the density of water.
C. It is a solid at 20°C and 1.0 atm.
D. It is the densest substance listed.
_____ 2. A substance in the table has a mass of 10 g and a volume of 10 cm3.
What is the substance?
A. mercury
B. oxygen
C. water
D. helium
_____ 3. When oxygen in the air reacts with iron, iron oxide forms. Which
statement is correct?
A. This is a physical change.
B. This is a chemical change.
C. Iron and iron oxide have the same properties.
D. Oxygen and iron have similar properties.
4
The Properties of Matter
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 4. Which of the following statements about chemical properties is true?
A. They can be observed when the identity of a substance changes.
B. They can always be observed without changing the identity of a
substance.
C. They are easier to observe than physical properties.
D. They are the properties that are most useful in identifying a
substance.
_____ 5. A chemical change takes place during a laboratory investigation of the
properties of magnesium. Which of the following may have been
observed?
A. Magnesium burns in the presence of oxygen.
B. Magnesium melts at 649°C.
C. Magnesium becomes malleable when it is heated.
D. Magnesium conducts an electric current.
_____ 6. Which of the following statements describes a chemical change?
A. Clear water turns red after a dye is added.
B. Ice melts.
C. Salt dissolves in water.
D. Milk sours.
_____ 7. Max drops one effervescent tablet into a beaker of water and places an
identical tablet on the lab table. He observes bubbles of gas form on the
surface of the first tablet. The bubbles rise and break on the surface of
the water. After several minutes, no more bubbles form and the tablet is
not visible in the water. The tablet on the lab table is unchanged. What
conclusion should Max draw from his observations?
A. The tablet that was placed in the water changed directly into a gas
through a physical change.
B. The tablet that was placed in the water broke down when exposed to
light and formed a gas through a chemical change.
C. The tablet that was placed in the water caused dissolved gases in the
water to be released through a physical change.
D. The tablet that was placed in the water interacted with the water to
form a gas through a chemical change.
_____ 8. Which physical property can be used to classify oxygen, helium,
propane, and hydrogen as being similar?
A. flammability
B. state
C. reactivity
D. malleability
5
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 9. In an experiment that compares the densities of liquids, you must
analyze the beaker shown above. Which statement best describes how
the densities of the liquids compare?
A. Liquid M is more dense than Liquid N.
B. Liquid N is more dense than Liquid L.
C. Liquid L is more dense than either Liquid M or Liquid N.
D. Liquid M is more dense than either Liquid L or Liquid N.
OPEN RESPONSE
10. Two balls are made of solid, white plastic. Both balls have the same diameter.
One ball has twice the mass of the other. What can you conclude that would
explain this difference?
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11. What chemical properties would be important to consider when choosing a
material to make a safe baking dish?
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6
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Use the table below to answer question 1.
Substance
Temperature (°C)
–2
Ice
Ice water
0
Water
27
Boiling Water
100
_____ 1. The table above shows data from a laboratory experiment in which
Andrew measured the temperatures of water in various states. Which of
the following would be a valid conclusion from this experiment?
A. The particles in ice water have less energy than the particles in ice
do.
B. The particles in ice have more energy than the particles in water do.
C. The particles in ice water have more energy than the particles in boiling
water do.
D. The particles in boiling water have more energy than the particles in
ice water do.
_____ 2. Which of the following sentences best describes the process that
happens when liquid water becomes ice at its freezing point?
A. Energy is added to the water, so its particles move slower.
B. Energy is added to the water, so its particles move faster.
C. Energy is removed from the water, so its particles lock into place.
D. Energy is removed from the water, so its particles move apart.
_____ 3. Which of the following sentences describes oxygen at room
temperature?
A. It has a constant volume and a definite shape.
B. It has a constant volume but takes the shape of its container.
C. Its particles move fast enough to overcome the attraction between
them.
D. Its particles have a very orderly, three-dimensional arrangement.
7
States of Matter
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 4. What equipment would you use to measure 10 mL of water for an
experiment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
_____ 5. In a laboratory experiment, Kevin compared the viscosities of several
substances. Substances A, B, and C flowed at different rates, but
substance D did not flow at all. Which of the following is a valid
conclusion?
A. Substance D is at its melting point.
B. Substance D is in the same state as the other substances.
C. Substance D is a solid.
D. Substance D’s particles have little attraction to one another.
_____ 6. An ad for a brand of dry ice claims that the dry ice keeps food cold
without getting it wet. Which of the following is a valid explanation for
this claim?
A. Dry ice undergoes sublimation.
B. Dry ice is not frozen.
C. Dry ice is colder than ice made from water.
D. Dry ice keeps food from freezing.
_____ 7. Madison conducted an experiment to find out what happens to the
temperature of water after the water starts boiling. She measured the
water’s temperature every 30 s during the experiment. Which of the
following statements describes how she should graph her data?
A. Place time on the x-axis and boiling point on the y-axis.
B. Place amount of water on the x-axis and temperature on the y-axis.
C. Place time on the x-axis and temperature on the y-axis.
D. Place temperature on the x-axis and boiling point on the y-axis.
8
States of Matter
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 8. In a laboratory experiment, Rashida observed water as it vaporized,
froze, melted, and condensed. Which of the following is a valid
conclusion?
A. She observed different changes of state.
B. Each of these processes happened at different temperatures.
C. All of the changes required energy to be absorbed.
D. All of the changes required energy to be released.
Use the diagrams below to answer question 9.
1.
3.
2.
_____ 9. The diagrams above were used to illustrate the arrangement of the
particles of a substance in three different states of matter. Which of the
following statements is correct?
A. The particles in diagram 1 move faster than the particles in diagram 2.
B. The particles in diagram 3 move fast enough to break away from
each other.
C. The particles in diagrams 1 and 2 are locked in place.
D. The particles in diagram 2 are affected by electric and magnetic fields.
OPEN RESPONSE
10. Identify the three most familiar states of matter and describe the motion and
arrangement of the particles in each of the states.
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11. Brasstown Bald has an elevation of 1.5 km above sea level and is the highest
point in Georgia. The Atlantic coast of Georgia is at sea level. How does the
boiling point of water differ between these two locations? Why does this
difference exist?
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9
States of Matter
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Properties of Substances
Substance
Mass
(g)
Boiling
point (°C)
Density
(kg/m3)
A
20
40
20
B
1,000
100
35
C
1,000
40
100
D
1,000
40
20
_____ 1. Which two substances in the table are most likely the same?
A. substances A and C
B. substances B and D
C. substances C and D
D. substances A and D
_____ 2. You are given two jars, each of which contains an unknown substance.
You are asked to determine if the substances are different from one
another or if each jar contains the same substance. What should you do
to complete this task?
A. Compare the appearances of the substances. If the substances look
the same, then they are the same.
B. Compare only the physical properties of the substances. If the
substances have the same density or melting point, then they are the
same.
C. Compare both the physical and the chemical properties of the
substances. If the substances perform the same in a variety of tests,
then they are the same.
D. Compare the physical states of the substances. If the substances are
in the same state, then they are the same.
10
Elements, Compounds, and Mixtures
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 3. If two poisonous elements are combined chemically, which of the
following will be true of the resulting compound?
A. The compound will be more poisonous than the gases.
B. The compound will be as poisonous as the gases.
C. The compound may or may not be poisonous.
D. The compound will not be poisonous.
_____ 4. Ellen made the illustration above to show one of the steps in her most
recent experiment. Which statement describes what Ellen was doing
during this step of the experiment?
A. She was using a chemical change to break down a compound into
the elements that make it up.
B. She was using a physical change to separate the compounds that
make up an element.
C. She was using a physical change to separate the components that make
up a mixture.
D. She was using a chemical change to combine elements to form a
compound.
11
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 5. The graph above was constructed from data collected during a
laboratory investigation. Which of the following values is the amount
of sodium nitrate that can dissolve in 100 mL of water at 40°C?
A. 0 g
B. 40 g
C. 100 g
D. 130 g
_____ 6. Ka-wai makes a solution which contains the maximum amount of
sodium chlorate that can dissolve in 100 mL of water at 0°C. He heats
the solution to 60°C. How much additional sodium chlorate must he
add to once again have a solution that has the maximum amount of
sodium chlorate dissolved in it at this new temperature?
A. 2 g
B. 40 g
C. 50 g
D. 80 g
_____ 7. Which of the following sentences best describes table salt, NaCl?
A. Table salt is a compound made from two elements.
B. Table salt is a mixture made from two elements.
C. Table salt is an element made from two mixtures.
D. Table salt is an alloy made from a metal and a nonmetal.
12
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 8. Imagine that you were asked to classify four samples of equal and
known volume, each of which was made up of a single element. Which
factor would be most useful for identifying them?
A. mass
B. shape
C. hardness
D. original source
OPEN RESPONSE
9. Rafiq has a container filled with a clear liquid. He knows that the liquid is
either a compound or a mixture but does not know which. What can Rafiq do
to find out? Explain your answer.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
10. Compare elements and compounds. How are they similar and how are they
different? List two examples of each kind of substance.
_______________________________________________________________
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_______________________________________________________________
13
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Use the diagram below to answer questions 1–3.
Time (s)
Distance (m)
0
0
1
96
2
192
3
288
4
384
_____ 1. During a field experiment about speed, a scientist created the chart
above. The chart shows distance and time measurements for a racing
car on the straight section of a race track. What is the racing car’s
speed?
A. 0 m/s
B. 96 m/s
C. 192 m/s
D. 384 m/s
_____ 2. What is the racing car’s acceleration?
A. 0 m/s2
B. 96 m/s2
C. 192 m/s2
D. 384 m/s2
_____ 3. Theodore plots the data in the chart above. He plots distance on the
y-axis and time on the x-axis. How will the movement of the racing car
be represented on the graph?
A. a curved line
B. a straight line
C. a series of connected straight lines
D. a single point
14
Matter in Motion
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 4. A downhill skier has her skis sharpened and waxed before every race.
What effect would this have on her performance?
A. The force of friction between the skis and snow would increase, and
her speed would decrease.
B. The force of friction between the skis and snow would decrease, and
her speed would decrease.
C. The force of friction between the skis and snow would increase, and
her speed would increase.
D. The force of friction between the skis and snow would decrease, and
her speed would increase.
_____ 5. What is the average speed of the toy car if it moves through the
distance shown in 2 s?
A. 2.0 cm/s
B. 2.0 cm/s2
C. 1.5 cm/s
D. 1.5 cm/s2
_____ 6. Which of the following pairs of forces is balanced?
A. 16 N north and 16 N south
B. 16 N north and 16 N east
C. 16 N north and 16 N west
D. 16 N north and 16 N north
15
Matter in Motion
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Use the graph below to answer questions 7–8.
_____ 7. The graph above describes the motion of 2 balls—ball A and ball B.
According to the graph, which of the following statements is true?
A. The velocity of ball A is increasing over time at a constant
acceleration.
B. The velocity of ball B is increasing over time at a constant
acceleration.
C. The velocity of ball A is decreasing over time at a constant
acceleration.
D. The velocity of ball B is decreasing over time at a constant
acceleration.
_____ 8. According to the data in the graph, which of the following conclusions
about ball B is valid?
A. The ball is moving, but not accelerating.
B. The ball’s acceleration is positive and is not constant.
C. The ball’s acceleration is negative and is not constant.
D. The ball is moving with constant deceleration.
_____ 9. How will the motion of a ball rolling on the ground change if the ball
encounters a frictional force that opposes its motion?
A. The ball will speed up.
B. The ball will slow down.
C. The ball’s speed will not change.
D. The ball will change direction.
16
Matter in Motion
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
OPEN RESPONSE
10. Because most objects do not travel at a constant speed, average speed is often
used to calculate speed. Yesterday, Juanita traveled 30 km. She drove 16 km in
20 min, walked 4 km in 1 h, then rode a bus that traveled 10 km in 10 min.
Calculate her average speed in kilometers per hour. Show your work.
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_______________________________________________________________
11. You observe the effects of gravity every day. What two quantities does
gravitational force depend on? How do those quantities affect the size of the
gravitational force between two objects?
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17
Matter in Motion
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Force (N)
Acceleration (m/s2)
25
5
50
10
75
15
_____ 1. The table above shows the accelerations produced when different
forces act on a 5 kg mass. Assuming that the pattern in the table
continues, use these data to predict what the acceleration would be
when a 100 N force acts on a 5 kg mass.
A. 10 m/s2
B. 100 m/s2
C. 20 m/s2
D. 30 m/s2
_____ 2. Friction acting on a rolling ball to eventually bring the ball to a stop is
an example of which of the following?
A. an unbalanced force
B. gravity
C. a balanced force
D. momentum
_____ 3. A short time after jumping from an airplane, a skydiver reaches a
constant speed. Which of the following statements about the skydiver is
true?
A. The skydiver is accelerating toward the ground at 9.8 m/s2.
B. An unbalanced force acts on the skydiver.
C. No unbalanced forces act on the skydiver.
D. Air resistance does not affect the skydiver’s speed.
18
Forces and Motion
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 4. Two objects in motion have different masses. How does the difference
in mass affect the forces needed to make the objects achieve the same
rate of change of velocity?
A. The object that has less mass will require more force to achieve the
same rate of change.
B. Force does not affect the rate of change of an object.
C. It will take the same amount of force to achieve the same rate of
change for the two objects.
D. The object that has greater mass will require more force to achieve
the same rate of change.
F
_____ 5. The equation a = m represents Newton’s second law of motion. Based
on this equation, if balanced forces act on an object, which of the
following outcomes can be expected?
A. The object’s acceleration will be negative.
B. The object’s acceleration will be zero.
C. The object’s mass will decrease.
D. The object’s mass will increase.
F
_____ 6. Analyze the equation a = m. If the mass of an object decreases while a
constant force is applied to the object, what happens to the object’s
acceleration?
A. The object’s acceleration will increase.
B. The object’s acceleration will decrease.
C. The object’s acceleration remains unchanged.
D. The object’s acceleration is zero.
19
Forces and Motion
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 7. The illustration above summarizes the results of an experiment that
involves dropping a feather and a rock at the same time in a vacuum
chamber. Which of the following is a true statement?
A. The rock and the feather are accelerating at the same rate.
B. The rock and the feather are subject to air resistance.
C. The rock and the feather are moving with constant speed.
D. The rock and the feather reach the ground at different times.
_____ 8. Analyze the illustration above. Given that acceleration is the rate at
which velocity changes, what is the rate of acceleration of the rock?
A. 0 m/s2
B. 9.8 m/s2
C. 14.7 m/s2
D. 19.6 m/s2
_____ 9. What does the magnitude of the gravitational force between two bodies
depend on?
A. the velocity of the bodies and the friction between them
B. the size of the bodies and their position relative to Earth
C. the weight of the bodies and how quickly they are moving
D. the mass of the bodies and the distance between them
_____ 10. An object moving in a straight line with a constant speed has no
unbalanced forces acting on it. How will the object’s motion change
over time?
A. The object will gradually slow down and come to a stop.
B. Centripetal force will cause the object to go into a circular orbit.
C. The object’s motion will remain unchanged.
D. The object will accelerate and change direction.
20
Forces and Motion
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
OPEN RESPONSE
11. In archery, you use a bow to shoot an arrow at a target. Why must an archer
point the arrow a little above the target in order to hit the target in the center?
What forces are involved?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
12. Luging is a sport in which a racer slides down an ice-covered track. Identify
the three main forces acting on the racer and describe whether each one acts to
increase or to decrease the racer’s speed.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
21
Forces and Motion
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Properties of Four Substances*
Viscosity
(mPa•s)
Density
(g/cm3)
Surface Tension
(mN/m)
Gasoline
0.508
0.70
21.14
Mercury
1.526
13.53
485.48
Rubbing
alcohol
2.038
0.78
20.93
Water
0.890
1.00
71.99
Substance
* at room temperature and pressure
_____ 1. The information in the table above was collected during a laboratory
investigation on different fluids. According to this information, which
of the following conclusions is true?
A. Gasoline, mercury, and rubbing alcohol will float in water.
B. Gasoline, rubbing alcohol, and water will float in mercury.
C. Mercury, rubbing alcohol, and water will float in gasoline.
D. Gasoline, mercury, and water will float in rubbing alcohol.
_____ 2. A rock weighs 30 N. It displaces a volume of water that weighs 5 N.
What is the buoyant force on the object?
A. 5 N
B. 6 N
C. 30 N
D. 35 N
22
Forces in Fluids
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 3. Leon did an experiment to determine what would happen to a rubber
ball that he placed underwater. Leon held the ball under 10 cm of water
in his kitchen sink. When he released the ball, it rose to the surface.
What inference can Leon make based on his observations of the ball’s
movement?
A. The buoyant force acting on the ball was greater than the force of
gravity acting on the ball.
B. The force of gravity acting on the ball was greater than the buoyant
force acting on the ball.
C. The buoyant force acting on the ball was equal to the force of
gravity acting on the ball.
D. There was no force of gravity acting on the ball.
_____ 4. Which of the following accurately describes the forces acting on a
beach ball that is at rest on the surface of the water in a swimming
pool?
A. The forces are unbalanced.
B. The forces are balanced.
C. No forces are acting on the ball.
D. All of the forces are acting in the same direction.
Mass and Volume Measurements
Object
Mass (g)
Volume (cm3)
1
12
4
2
790
100
3
88
11
4
5
50
_____ 5. The table shows mass and volume measurements for four objects.
Which of these objects will float in water, given that the density of
liquid water is 1 g/cm3?
A. object 1
B. object 2
C. object 3
D. object 4
23
Forces in Fluids
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 6. In which of the following situations are there unbalanced forces?
A. A submarine rises to the surface as crewmembers empty the ballast
tanks.
B. A shipwreck lies undisturbed on the bottom of the ocean.
C. Two children paddle a canoe in opposite directions, but the canoe
does not move.
D. A fish floats just below the surface, suspended in the water.
_____ 7. Which of the following statements accurately explains why a steel boat
can float in water?
A. Steel is denser than water.
B. Steel is less dense than water.
C. The boat displaces a volume of water that weighs less than the boat.
D. The buoyant force acting on the boat is equal to the weight of the
boat.
OPEN RESPONSE
8. Many power tools and power lifts have pneumatic parts that use high-pressure
air to move things. Like hydraulic devices, these pneumatic devices use an
enclosed fluid to transmit force. While a hydraulic device uses a liquid, a
pneumatic device uses a gas. How does Pascal’s principle apply to pneumatic
devices?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
9. A ship’s hollow shape allows it to float in water. Why does the same ship,
when filled with water, sink in water?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
24
Forces in Fluids
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Industrial
Rotary Saw
Work Input
Work Output
Saw A
1500 J
1342 J
Saw B
1350 J
1279 J
Saw C
1425 J
1200 J
Saw D
1610 J
1500 J
_____ 1. Patrick is evaluating saws to buy for his lumber mill. He calculates work
inputs and outputs for each saw. Which saw has the highest mechanical
efficiency?
A. saw A
B. saw B
C. saw C
D. saw D
_____ 2. Which of these common objects is a third-class lever?
A. stapler
B. chisel
C. seesaw
D. bottle opener
_____ 3. How does a simple machine decrease the required input force?
A. by changing the direction of the input force
B. by increasing the distance through which the output force is exerted
C. by increasing the distance through which the input force is exerted
D. by decreasing the amount of work that is required
_____ 4. Kristin is looking for a doorknob that is hard to turn to keep her baby
brother out of her room. Which of the following doorknobs should she
choose?
A. a doorknob with a wheel radius of 5 cm and an axle radius of 4 cm
B. a doorknob with a wheel radius of 6 cm and an axle radius of 2 cm
C. a doorknob with a wheel radius of 3 cm and an axle radius of 0.5 cm
D. a doorknob with a wheel radius of 4 cm and an axle radius of 3 cm
25
Work and Machines
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 5. A wheelchair ramp is 5.2 m long and 0.8 m high. What is the ramp’s
mechanical advantage?
A. 4.2
B. 4.4
C. 5.2
D. 6.5
_____ 6. Which of the following is true about the way a screw works?
A. A small input force is applied over a short distance.
B. A large input force is applied over a short distance.
C. A small input force is applied over a long distance.
D. A large input force is applied over a long distance.
_____ 7. In this movable pulley, the input force is 20 N. What is the output
force?
A. 10 N
B. 20 N
C. 40 N
D. 80 N
_____ 8. A screwdriver is used to open a paint can. How are the magnitudes and
directions of the input and output forces related?
A. The output force is greater than the input force, and the directions of
the forces are opposite.
B. The output force is less than the input force, and the directions of the
forces are opposite.
C. The output force is greater than the input force, and the direction of
both forces is the same.
D. The output force is less than the input force, and the direction of
both forces is the same.
26
Work and Machines
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 9. Which of the following is true of a simple machine in which the output
force is greater than the input force?
A. The mechanical advantage is less than 1.
B. The directions of input and output forces must be the same.
C. The amount of work required to accomplish a task is decreased.
D. The input force is exerted over a larger distance than the output
force is.
_____ 10. A wheelbarrow is a second-class lever. Its wheel is the fulcrum, and its
load is carried in a tray. What could be done to a wheelbarrow in order
to make lifting and moving rocks easier?
A. the handles could be shortened
B. the wheel could be made larger and wider
C. the distance between wheel and tray could be increased
D. the tray could be moved so it is above the wheel
OPEN RESPONSE
11. Jenna is responsible for moving pianos for the Augusta Symphony. What are
two simple machines that Jenna and her crew could use to move a piano from
the stage in the concert hall onto a high outdoor stage? Explain how each
machine would help make moving the piano easier.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
12. Jeremy is using a hose and a sprinkler to water the lawn. What simple
machines is he using, and how do these machines make the job easier?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
27
Work and Machines
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Weight
(N)
Gravitational
Potential Energy (J)
Book
20
10.00
Plate
5
7.50
Framed picture
7
8.75
Statue
25
18.75
Object
_____ 1. The objects in the table above are all on shelves in a bookcase. Which
of the objects is located on the highest shelf?
A. the book
B. the plate
C. the framed picture
D. the statue
_____ 2. Which of the following describes how energy is converted when a cat
knocks a plant off of a counter?
A. The gravitational potential energy of the cat is converted into kinetic
energy.
B. The kinetic energy of the cat is converted into gravitational potential
energy.
C. The gravitational potential energy of the plant is converted into
kinetic energy.
D. The kinetic energy of the plant is converted into gravitational
potential energy.
_____ 3. Which of the following is true of a closed system?
A. Energy can be destroyed, but cannot be created.
B. Energy can be created, but cannot be destroyed.
C. The total amount of energy in the system stays the same.
D. The system’s kinetic energy must equal its potential energy.
28
Energy and Energy Resources
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 4. Laboratory investigations show that when two cars traveling at the
same speed have a head-on collision, the smaller car experiences more
damage. Which of the following is a reasonable explanation for that
fact?
A. The larger car has more potential energy than the smaller car does.
B. Mass has a greater effect on kinetic energy than speed does.
C. The larger car experiences more friction than the smaller car does.
D. The larger car has more kinetic energy than the smaller car does.
_____ 5. What is the kinetic energy of a 30 kg greyhound that is running at a
speed of 17 m/s?
A. 255 J
B. 510 J
C. 4,335 J
D. 8,670 J
_____ 6. Melissa made the sketches above to record everyday examples of types
of energy. Which sketch shows kinetic energy?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
_____ 7. Which of the following describes how energy is converted when a
toaster toasts bread?
A. Electrical energy is converted into thermal energy.
B. Thermal energy is converted into light energy.
C. Light energy is converted into electrical energy.
D. Electrical energy is converted into chemical energy.
_____ 8. Which situation describes a conversion from kinetic energy into
potential energy?
A. An apple falls from a tree.
B. A duck moves through the water.
C. A rubber band is wrapped around stalks of broccoli.
D. A can rolls along the floor.
29
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
OPEN RESPONSE
9. Tyrone went camping at Fort Mountain State Park in Chatsworth, Georgia. He
got up early one morning to bike the trails in the park. After a big breakfast,
Tyrone headed out on his bicycle ride. His bike’s headlight was powered by
his pedaling. Describe two ways in which energy was converted from one
form into another.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
10. Meredith fills a teapot with water and puts it on the stove. She turns the gas
burner on and waits for the water to boil. When the water is boiling, Meredith
pours it into a cup with a teabag in it. She drinks the tea after it has cooled
slightly. Describe three transfers of thermal energy in this example.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
30
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Specific Heat Capacities of Some Common Substances
Substance
Specific heat
capacity (J/kg•C)
Lead
Gold
Mercury
Silver
Copper
Iron
Substance
Glass
Aluminum
Wood
Steam
Ice
Water
128
129
138
234
387
448
Specific heat capacity
(J/kg•C)
837
899
1760
2010
2090
4184
_____ 1. If an object made of each of these substances was placed in a pot of
boiling water, which object would reach 100˚C most quickly?
A. lead
B. iron
C. glass
D. wood
_____ 2. Which statement best explains how a refrigerator works?
A. Thermal energy is transferred from the room to the refrigerator
compartment and liquid refrigerant in the coils.
B. Thermal energy from the liquid refrigerant in the coils is transferred
to the refrigerator compartment.
C. Thermal energy from the refrigerator compartment is transferred to
the liquid refrigerant in the coils.
D. Thermal energy is transferred between the refrigerator compartment
and the liquid refrigerant in the coils.
_____ 3. Which of the following sentences best describes the process that occurs
when liquid water becomes ice?
A. Thermal energy is transferred to the water, and its molecules stop
moving.
B. Thermal energy is transferred to the water, and its molecules move
more quickly.
C. Thermal energy is transferred from the water, and its molecules are
held tightly together.
D. Thermal energy is transferred from the water, and its molecules
break apart.
31
Heat and Heat Technology
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 4. Which statement correctly describes how thermal energy is transferred
when Phoenix holds a piece of ice in her hand?
A. Thermal energy is transferred from her hand to the ice cube.
B. Thermal energy is transferred back and forth between her hand and
the ice cube.
C. Thermal energy is transferred from the ice cube to her hand.
D. Thermal energy is not transferred between her hand and the ice cube.
_____ 5. How do electromagnetic waves emitted by the sun heat Earth?
A. by conduction
B. by convection
C. by radiation
D. by insulation
_____ 6. The diagram above shows three closed jars that all contain the same
substance. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The particles in all three jars have the same amount of thermal
energy.
B. The particles in jar 1 have the greatest freedom of motion.
C. The particles in jar 2 cannot transfer heat by convection.
D. The particles in jar 3 have the highest kinetic energy.
_____ 7. Which of the following statements best describes particles of water at
room temperature?
A. They are held tightly together and can only vibrate.
B. They are loosely connected and can slide past each other.
C. They move about freely and are far apart from each other.
D. They have no attractions between them and do not move.
_____ 8. Which of the following is an example of thermal expansion?
A. water increasing in volume as it freezes in an ice cube tray
B. a jar lid loosening when it is placed under running hot water
C. hot soup cooling to room temperature
D. a balloon getting larger as more air is pumped into it
32
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
OPEN RESPONSE
9. As Jackie walks along the beach on Tybee Island, the hot sand burns her feet.
When she lies on a blanket in the sand, Jackie gradually becomes warm. To
cool off, Jackie goes swimming in the ocean. Describe three ways that Jackie’s
experiences illustrate thermal energy transfer. State the type of energy transfer
that is not illustrated.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
10. Gordon places a metal spoon into a mug of hot cocoa. Explain why the spoon
is warm after a few minutes.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
33
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. What principle of electromagnetic force is depicted in the above
diagram of an atom?
A. Particles with the same charges have no effect on each other.
B. Particles with opposite charges attract each other.
C. Electromagnetic force repels objects from the nucleus.
D. Protons and neutrons repel each other because they have the same
charge.
_____ 2. What is the key difference that causes the atoms of one element to
differ from the atoms of all other elements?
A. the number of electrons
B. the number of isotopes
C. the number of neutrons
D. the number of protons
34
Introduction to Atoms
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 3. Atom A contains 8 protons and 8 neutrons. Atom B contains 8
protons and 9 neutrons. Which of the following statements correctly
describes the two atoms?
A. They are isotopes.
B. They are radioactive.
C. They are atoms of different elements.
D. They have the same mass number.
_____ 4. Which of the following pieces of equipment was J. J. Thomson using
when he discovered electrons?
A. electron microscope
B. magnifying lens
C. cathode-ray tube
D. telescope
_____ 5. Which of the following statements about the mass of a neutron
is true?
A. A neutron has half the mass of a proton.
B. A neutron is a little more massive than a proton.
C. A neutron has the same mass as an electron.
D. A neutron is a little less massive than an electron.
_____ 6. A neutral atom has an atomic number of 20 and a mass number of
42. How many electrons does the atom have?
A. 20
B. 22
C. 42
D. 62
35
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Use the table below to answer questions 7–9.
Subatomic Particles
Particle
Mass
(amu)
Charge
Location
Proton
1.0073
+
Nucleus
Neutron
1.0087
Neutral
Nucleus
Electron
0.0006
—
Electron
Cloud
_____ 7. According to the table above, which of the following sets of particles
has no charge?
A. 6 protons, 5 neutrons, 4 electrons
B. 5 protons, 6 neutrons, 5 electrons
C. 4 protons, 4 neutrons, 6 electrons
D. 6 protons, 5 neutrons, 5 electrons
_____ 8. According to the table above, about how much mass would a nucleus
that is composed of 15 protons and 18 neutrons have?
A. 15 amu
B. 18 amu
C. 23 amu
D. 33 amu
_____ 9. According to the table above, which of the following statements about
the mass of subatomic particles is true?
A. The particles found in the nucleus are much more massive than the
particles found in the electron cloud.
B. Protons and electrons have about the same mass.
C. Neutrons are much less massive than protons and electrons.
D. The positively-charged particles in the nucleus are much more
massive than the neutral particles in the nucleus.
_____ 10. What would an atom of aluminum that has 13 protons and 15 neutrons
be named?
A. aluminum-13
B. aluminum-15
C. aluminum-26
D. aluminum-28
36
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 11. Oxygen has an atomic number of 8. Which of the following could form
the nucleus of an isotope of oxygen?
A. 4 protons and 4 neutrons
B. 6 protons and 8 neutrons
C. 8 protons and 10 neutrons
D. 6 protons and 2 neutrons
OPEN RESPONSE
12. John Dalton, a British chemist, published his atomic theory in 1803. What
were the three main points of Dalton’s theory? Which of those points were
eventually shown to be incorrect?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
13. The interactions of four fundamental forces can describe all the physical
relationships in nature. Describe these four forces and explain how they
contribute to the structure of an atom.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
37
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
6
C
Carbon
12.0
_____ 1. What does the number at the top of the square above tell you about
carbon?
A. A carbon nucleus has 6 protons.
B. Carbon has an average atomic mass of 6.
C. Carbon has 6 isotopes.
D. A carbon atom has 6 electrons in its outermost energy level.
_____ 2. Approximately how many elements are in the periodic table?
A. between 75 and 100
B. between 100 and 125
C. between 125 and 150
D. more than 150
_____ 3. Alberto has an element that is a shiny, brittle solid that conducts
electric current. The element most likely belongs to which class of
elements?
A. halogens
B. metals
C. nonmetals
D. metalloids
_____ 4. In what order are the regions arranged on the periodic table when you
read it from left to right?
A. noble gases, metals, nonmetals, metalloids
B. metalloids, metals, nonmetals, noble gases
C. metals, metalloids, nonmetals, noble gases
D. nonmetals, noble gases, metals, metalloids
38
The Periodic Table
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 5. Fluorine, chlorine, bromine, iodine, and astatine make up Group 17, the
halogens. Why are these elements grouped together?
A. They are all very reactive nonmetals that have similar chemical
properties.
B. They are all nonreactive gases that have similar physical properties.
C. Their atoms all have 8 electrons in their outer energy levels.
D. They all have the same atomic number.
_____ 6. Which of the following best describes the properties of metals?
A. hard, brittle, and nonconductive
B. liquid, dark, and conductive
C. shiny, malleable, and conductive
D. soft, oily, and very reactive
Cobalt and Nickel Entries in Periodic Table
27
28
Co
Ni
Cobalt
Nickel
58.9
58.7
_____ 7. Which of the following statements about cobalt (Co) and nickel (Ni) is
true?
A. Nickel has a greater average atomic mass than cobalt does.
B. Nickel atoms have more protons than cobalt atoms do.
C. Cobalt atoms have more electrons than nickel atoms do.
D. Cobalt and nickel belong to the same group on the periodic table.
_____ 8. Which of the following statements about a group of elements is true?
A. Atoms of the elements have the same number of neutrons.
B. Atoms of the elements have the same atomic number.
C. The elements have similar properties.
D. The elements have the same average atomic mass.
39
The Periodic Table
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 9. What is the purpose of the zigzag line on the right side of the periodic
table?
A. It divides the metals and nonmetals and shows where the metalloids
are.
B. It indicates a group of elements that have the same chemical
properties.
C. It connects the elements in the table that have the same atomic
number.
D. It marks the border between the alkali metals and the transition
metals.
OPEN RESPONSE
10. In Mendeleev’s periodic table, the element iodine (I) came before tellurium
(Te). He arranged the elements by atomic weight. Later, Henry Moseley
revised the table to place iodine after tellurium. Explain the basis for
Moseley’s revision to the periodic table.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
11. Sodium and potassium are members of the alkali metal group. What properties
do sodium and potassium share with each other and with the other members of
the alkali metal group? Describe at least four properties.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
40
The Periodic Table
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. How many electrons are in the second energy level of the atom shown
above?
A. 2
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
_____ 2. Which of the following statements about helium atoms is true?
A. Helium atoms can never have a full set of valence electrons.
B. Helium atoms need only 2 valence electrons to have a full outermost
energy level.
C. Helium atoms do not have valence electrons.
D. Helium atoms have the same number of valence electrons as sulfur
atoms do.
_____ 3. Sodium chloride, or table salt, forms when a chlorine atom takes an
electron from a neighboring sodium atom. Which of the following
describes the force that holds sodium chloride together?
A. an ionic bond
B. a hydrogen bond
C. a metallic bond
D. a covalent bond
41
Chemical Bonding
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 4. An aluminum ion has 13 protons, 14 neutrons, and 10 electrons. What
is the charge of an aluminum ion?
A. 10⫺
B. 3⫺
C. 1+
D. 3+
_____ 5. What property of copper allows copper wire to bend without breaking?
A. Copper atoms have 29 protons.
B. Copper is found in Group 11 on the periodic table.
C. Copper atoms do not have a full outermost energy level.
D. Copper atoms form metallic bonds with each other.
_____ 6. According to the electron-dot diagram of oxygen shown above, how
many more valence electrons does the oxygen atom need to fill its
outermost energy level?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 6
D. 8
_____ 7. The ions that make up an ionic compound are bonded in a repeating
three-dimensional pattern. What is this pattern called?
A. chloride lattice
B. covalent bond
C. crystal lattice
D. crystal pattern
42
Chemical Bonding
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 8. Which of the following forms when a neutral atom loses an electron?
A. a negative atom
B. a neutral ion
C. a positive ion
D. a negative ion
_____ 9. During a laboratory experiment at Georgia State University, Juanita
observes a model of two bonded atoms. She is told that the atoms are
both nonmetals. Which of the following is a valid conclusion?
A. She is looking at a model of atoms held together by a covalent bond.
B. She is looking at a model of atoms held together by an ionic bond.
C. She is looking at a model of a metalloid.
D. She is looking at a model of a crystal lattice.
OPEN RESPONSE
10. Which of an atom’s electrons are most likely to be involved in chemical
bonding? Why?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
11. Why do atoms of the noble gases, in Group 18 on the periodic table, usually
not form chemical bonds?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
43
Chemical Bonding
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. The diagram above shows how a light stick works. Light sticks begin to
glow when the vial inside the stick is broken. Chemicals inside the vial
mix with chemicals outside of the vial. Which of the following
statements best supports the idea that a chemical reaction is occurring?
A. The vial is broken into smaller pieces.
B. Energy is released in the form of light.
C. Two different substances are combined.
D. The substances are in a flexible container.
_____ 2. A scientist at the Chemical Analysis Core Facility at the University of
Georgia’s Athens campus carries out a reaction in a test tube. After the
bubbling stops, she notices that the test tube is very warm. What might
she conclude about the reaction?
A. The reaction happened very quickly.
B. The reaction is endothermic.
C. The reaction is exothermic.
D. No reaction took place.
_____ 3. Which of the following contains one oxygen atom?
A. H2O
B. CO2
C. 2N2O
D. Co
44
Chemical Reactions
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 4. Some silverware is made with the element silver (Ag). Over time, this
silverware will turn black if it is not cleaned with a special solution.
Which of the following statements best explains why the element silver
in the silverware turns black?
A. It absorbs energy when exposed to warm food.
B. It breaks down into smaller and smaller particles.
C. It reacts with substances in the air to form a new substance.
D. It changes from one state of matter into another state of matter.
_____ 5. Which chemical equation correctly shows the formation of water from
hydrogen and oxygen?
H2O
A. H2 + O2
B. 2H2 + O2
2H2O
H2O
C. H2 + 2O
D. H + O2
H2O
_____ 6. The energy diagram above shows the progress of a chemical reaction.
Which of the following statements about this reaction is true?
A. Energy is absorbed during this reaction.
B. The rate of this reaction increases, then it decreases.
C. The reaction is exothermic.
D. Activation energy is not required in this reaction.
_____ 7. Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?
A. water freezing into ice
B. ice melting into water
C. meat spoiling and changing color
D. butter softening into a liquid
45
Chemical Reactions
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 8. Which of the following is true of the law of conservation of energy?
A. The law of conservation of energy states that energy cannot change
forms.
B. The law of conservation of energy states that energy cannot be
created or destroyed.
C. The law of conservation of energy states that the total energy of the
reactants is greater than the total energy of the products.
D. The law of conservation of energy states that the total energy of the
reactants is less than the total energy of the products.
_____ 9. Look at the equations below. Which of the following statements is
true?
A. Equation 1 is an endothermic reaction.
B. Both equations 1 and 2 are endothermic reactions.
C. Equation 2 is an endothermic reaction.
D. Both equations 1 and 2 are exothermic reactions.
1. CH4 + 2O2
CO2 + 2H2O + energy
2. N2 + O2 + energy
2NO
OPEN RESPONSE
10. What are three ways by which the rate of a chemical reaction can be
increased?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
11. Compare synthesis and decomposition reactions and give an example of each.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
46
Chemical Reactions
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. What kind of carbon backbone does the figure above represent?
A. an alkyne chain
B. a ring chain
C. a branched chain
D. a straight chain
_____ 2. Antacids usually contain bases. Which of the following best describes
the reaction between antacids and stomach acid?
A. A neutralization reaction occurs, producing neutral compounds.
B. The products formed are more acidic than stomach acid.
C. The antacid becomes bright red in the presence of stomach acid.
D. The products formed contain different elements than those contained
in antacid and stomach acid.
_____ 3. Which of the following substances is a lipid?
A. glucose
B. carbohydrate
C. fat
D. protein
47
Chemical Compounds
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 4. A compound dissolved in water turns red litmus paper blue and
changes the indicator bromthymol blue to dark blue. What kind of
compound is it?
A. an acid
B. a base
C. lemon juice
D. table salt
_____ 5. A salt solution conducts an electric current, but a sugar solution does
not. Which of the following statements best describes why a sugar
solution does not conduct an electric current?
A. Sugar molecules are held together by ionic bonds.
B. Covalent compounds cannot conduct electric currents.
C. Sugar molecules form ions in water.
D. Sugar molecules are not charged.
pH of Common Household Substances
Substance
pH
Lemon juice
2.2
Vinegar
4.0
Milk
6.5
Ammonia
12.0
_____ 6. The pH of some common household substances is listed in the table.
Which substance would most likely feel slippery?
A. lemon juice
B. vinegar
C. milk
D. ammonia
_____ 7. What factor does the pH scale measure?
A. the concentration of sodium ions in a solution
B. the concentration of hydroxide ions in a solution
C. the concentration of glycogen ions in a solution
D. the concentration of hydronium ions in a solution
48
Chemical Compounds
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 8. All organic compounds are based on which element?
A. hydrogen
B. carbon
C. oxygen
D. nitrogen
OPEN RESPONSE
9. A chemist is identifying an unknown white solid. The sample consists of a
single compound. The first step in the identification process involves deciding
if the compound is covalent or ionic. Describe two pieces of information the
chemist could gather in order to decide if this compound is covalent or ionic.
Explain your answer.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
10. When you add a small amount of a weak acid to a sample of seawater, a
neutralization reaction occurs. What can you conclude about the pH of
seawater?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
49
Chemical Compounds
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Uranium-235
Barium-142
Krypton-91
_____ 1. Which of the following nuclear processes is occurring in the diagram
above?
A. alpha decay
B. beta decay
C. nuclear fission
D. nuclear fusion
_____ 2. In a fission reaction, the total mass of the products does not equal the
total mass of the reactants. Why?
A. Some of the energy changes into matter when nuclei join together.
B. Some of the energy changes into matter when the nucleus breaks
apart.
C. Some of the matter changes into energy when nuclei join together.
D. Some of the matter changes into energy when the nucleus breaks
apart.
_____ 3. Who is credited with discovering radioactivity?
A. Marie Curie
B. Pierre Curie
C. Henri Becquerel
D. Albert Einstein
50
Atomic Energy
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 4. What type of radioactive decay causes a uranium-238 nucleus to
change into a thorium-234 nucleus?
A. alpha decay
B. beta decay that releases an electron
C. beta decay that releases a positron
D. gamma decay
_____ 5. Ernesto wants to build a shield that he can stand behind that will block
gamma rays. Which material should he use?
A. several sheets of paper
B. several sheets of aluminum foil
C. several pieces of cloth
D. several centimeters of lead
_____ 6. Ellen has a 40 g sample of nitrogen-13. The half-life of nitrogen-13 is
10 minutes. What is the mass of nitrogen-13 in Ellen’s sample after
40 minutes?
A. 2.5 g
B. 5.0 g
C. 13 g
D. 20 g
Half-Lives of Radioactive Isotopes
Isotope
Half-life (days)
Cerium-141
32.50
Niobium-95
35.06
Ruthenium-103
39.25
Strontium-89
50.55
_____ 7. A scientist has a sample of an unknown radioactive isotope. After
70 days, the sample contains one-fourth of the original amount of the
radioactive isotope. What is the identity of the isotope?
A. cerium-141
B. niobium-95
C. ruthenium-103
D. strontium-89
51
Atomic Energy
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 8. A nuclear chain reaction is a continuous series of nuclear fission
reactions. Chain reactions in nuclear power plants are controlled by
inserting control rods in the nuclear reactor. How do control rods
work?
A. Control rods absorb excess uranium-235.
B. Control rods absorb emitted barium-142.
C. Control rods absorb excess energy.
D. Control rods absorb emitted neutrons.
_____ 9. Which of the following is a difference between a fission reaction and a
fusion reaction?
A. Fission is a “clean” source of energy, but fusion produces a great
amount of radioactive waste.
B. A fission reaction releases beta particles, but a fusion reaction
releases alpha particles.
C. Energy from a fission reaction is released when a nucleus breaks
apart, but energy from a fusion reaction is released when nuclei join.
D. A fission reaction requires very high temperatures, but a fusion
reaction does not.
OPEN RESPONSE
10. Gray’s Reef National Marine Sanctuary is located off the coast of Georgia.
Scientists have studied fossils in the area around Gray’s Reef and have determined
the age of the fossils using carbon-14 dating. Explain how carbon-14 dating
works.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
11. Imagine that your city is planning to build a new power plant to supply
electrical energy to the city. Some residents support building a power plant
that uses fossil fuels. Other residents support building a nuclear power plant
that will use energy from fission reactions. Describe two advantages and two
disadvantages to building a nuclear power plant instead of a fossil fuel power
plant.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
52
Atomic Energy
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. The diagram above shows four light bulbs wired in a circuit. What
would happen if bulb 3 burned out?
A. Bulb 1 and bulb 2 would go out but bulb 4 will remain lit.
B. Bulb 2 and bulb 4 would go out but bulb 1 will remain lit.
C. All of the other bulbs would go out.
D. All of the other bulbs would remain lit.
_____ 2. Tara rubs a balloon on her hair and charges both the balloon and her
hair. What will happen if Tara holds the balloon close to her hair?
A. Her hair will be repelled by the balloon because her hair and the
balloon have the same charge.
B. Her hair will be attracted to the balloon because her hair and the
balloon have the same charge.
C. Her hair will be repelled by the balloon because her hair and the
balloon are oppositely charged.
D. Her hair will be attracted to the balloon because her hair and the
balloon are oppositely charged.
_____ 3. How does the electric force act within an atom?
A. The electric force causes the repulsion of the negatively-charged
electrons from the positively-charged nucleus.
B. The electric force causes the attraction of negatively-charged
electrons to the positively charged nucleus.
C. The electric force holds neutrons and protons together in the
nucleus.
D. The electric force causes the attraction of negatively-charged
electrons to each other.
53
Introduction to Electricity
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 4. When Andre plugs his stereo into the same outlet as the television and
lamp, all three won’t work. What is the most likely hypothesis for what
happened?
A. The circuit was overloaded, and the circuit breaker opened.
B. The circuit was complete, and the circuit breaker closed.
C. Only the stereo operates on alternating current.
D. The stereo’s electrical cord was faulty.
_____ 5. Which of the following electrical devices could be used to monitor the
temperature of an engine?
A. a thermocouple
B. a photocell
C. a dry cell
D. a battery
Distance (mm)
Electric force (N)
1
243
3
27
5
10
7
5
9
3
_____ 6. A scientist measured the distance between two positively-charged
objects and determined the electric force between them. Based on the
data in the table above, which of the following statements is true?
A. As the distance between the objects increases, the size of the electric
force decreases.
B. As the distance between the objects increases, the objects become
more positively charged.
C. The size of the electric force is constant.
D. As the size of the objects increases, the size of the electric force
between them decreases.
54
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 7. Suki can have all five appliances in her kitchen on at the same time, or
she can have each appliance on one at a time. How are the appliances
in Suki’s kitchen wired?
A. in a single loop
B. in a direct current circuit
C. in a parallel circuit
D. in a series circuit
_____ 8. How should Pedro wire four bulbs in a circuit so that all the bulbs shine
as brightly as possible?
A. He should wire all four bulbs in a series circuit.
B. He should wire two bulbs in a parallel circuit and the other two
bulbs in a series circuit.
C. He should wire three bulbs in a series circuit and the other bulb in a
parallel circuit.
D. He should wire all four bulbs in a parallel circuit.
_____ 9. Which of the following copper wires will have the least amount of
resistance?
A. a short, thin wire
B. a short, thick wire
C. a long, thin wire
D. a long, thick wire
OPEN RESPONSE
10. Two kinds of electric current exist: direct current and alternating current.
Explain the difference between these two kinds of current and give an example
of where you might find each kind of current.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
11. On a rainy day, David wears rubber boots to school. The floors in his math
classroom are covered with carpet. After David walks across the room to the
pencil sharpener, he gets a shock when he touches the sharpener. Explain why
David got a shock.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
55
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Use the table below to answer questions 1 and 2.
Transformer
Primary
Coil Loops
Secondary
Coil Loops
A
20
29
B
35
7
C
12
24
D
19
14
_____ 1. The table above shows the number of primary and secondary coil loops
in four transformers. Which of the four transformers decrease current?
A. A and C
B. B and C
C. B and D
D. A, B, C, and D
_____ 2. Which of the four transformers are step-down transformers?
A. A and C
B. B and C
C. B and D
D. A, B, C, and D
_____ 3. In which of these locations would you find power lines with the highest
voltage?
A. in a neighborhood
B. leaving a power distribution center
C. leaving a power plant
D. entering a house
56
Electromagnetism
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 4. An electromagnet used in a junkyard can only pick up cars. How could
the electromagnet be improved so that it could lift trucks and other
large vehicles?
A. The electric current and the number of coils in the solenoid could be
increased.
B. The electric current could be increased and the number of coils in
the solenoid could be decreased.
C. The electric current and the number of coils in the solenoid could be
decreased.
D. The electric current could be decreased and the number of coils in
the solenoid could be increased.
_____ 5. Catherine rubs an iron nail in one direction with the south pole of a
magnet. Which of the following is true of the magnetized nail?
A. It will only be attracted to the north pole of a bar magnet.
B. It has a strong north pole and a much weaker south pole.
C. Its domains have become rearranged so that they line up in one
direction.
D. The bar magnet has caused a random arrangement of the nail’s
domains.
_____ 6. An electric outlet in the United States provides 120 volts of alternating
current. An electric outlet in England provides 230 volts of alternating
current. What kind of device would you need in order to use your hair
dryer in a hotel in England?
A. a galvanometer
B. a solenoid
C. a commutator
D. a step-down transformer
57
Electromagnetism
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 7. When a current-carrying wire is placed between two poles of a magnet,
the wire jumps up, as shown in the diagram above. Which of the
following statements about this phenomenon is true?
A. The wire creates a magnetic field that interacts with the magnetic
field of the magnet.
B. The north pole of the magnet interacts with the south pole of the
wire.
C. The battery transfers its magnetic field to the wire.
D. The wire causes the domains of the magnet to rearrange.
_____ 8. Jane puts the north pole of a bar magnet near an object on her desk. As
the magnet gets closer to the object, the object is repelled and moves
away from the magnet. Which of the following statements about the
object on Jane’s desk is true?
A. The object has a north pole but no south pole.
B. The object is a magnet or has been magnetized.
C. The object has randomly-arranged domains.
D. The object is not made of metal.
58
Electromagnetism
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
OPEN RESPONSE
9. Elise tells her friends that Earth’s magnetic field is created by a giant bar
magnet at Earth’s center. Is she right? Explain your answer.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
10. Dennis is building a toy car. He is trying to decide whether to install an
electric generator or an electric motor to power the toy. Which should he
choose? Explain your answer.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
59
Electromagnetism
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Motor
- +
Energy source
+
Energy source
_____ 1. What happens to the current in the circuit above if the manual switch is
opened?
A. Current stops in the smaller loop but continues in the larger loop.
B. Current stops in the larger loop but continues in the smaller loop.
C. Current stops in both loops.
D. The direction of the current is reversed.
_____ 2. Quinyana is using the circuit diagram above to design a sound amplifier.
She replaced the manual switch with a microphone. What other part
should she replace?
A. She should replace the transistor with a speaker.
B. She should replace the transistor with a volume control dial.
C. She should replace the motor with a speaker.
D. She should replace the motor with a volume control dial.
_____ 3. A company produces electronic components that are used in radios to
convert alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC). On one
assembly line, machines layer an n-type semi-conductor into a mold.
What else should be added to complete the component?
A. one n-type semiconductor
B. one p-type semiconductor
C. two p-type semiconductors
D. one p-type semiconductor and one n-type semiconductor
60
Electronic Technology
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 4. Which of these devices converts sound energy into electrical energy?
A. telephone
B. speaker
C. digital alarm clock
D. remote control
_____ 5. Laptop computers have very thin screens. How might a laptop
computer screen produce images?
A. Electron beams sweep the screen and cause fluorescent materials to
glow.
B. Laser beams shine behind the screen and create patterns of reflected
light.
C. Vibrations in thousands of electron tubes transfer energy to wells of
colored light.
D. Charged atoms of gas in wells on the screen transfer energy to
fluorescent materials.
_____ 6. Cecily uses a remote control to turn on her DVD player. What kind of
hardware is the remote?
A. a central processing unit
B. an input device
C. an output device
D. an interface card
Element
Number of Electrons in
Outermost Energy Level
Boron
3
Germanium
4
Phosphorus
5
Selenium
6
_____ 7. Which element in the table above could be used with silicon to make a
p-type semiconductor?
A. boron
B. germanium
C. phosphorus
D. selenium
61
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 8. Which of the following works in an analog way?
A. a remote control for a television
B. a volume control dial on a stereo
C. a programmable thermostat
D. a light switch
_____ 9. Why do remote-controlled toy cars contain transistors instead of
vacuum tubes?
A. Transistors change AC to DC, but vacuum tubes do not.
B. Transistors amplify electric current, but vacuum tubes do not.
C. Transistors are energy sources, but vacuum tubes are not.
D. Transistors are small and light, but vacuum tubes are not.
OPEN RESPONSE
10. Would a diode containing only two p-type semiconductors conduct an electric
current? Explain your answer.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
11. Telephones and radios are similar because they both convert signals into sound
waves. Describe two ways in which telephones and radios are different.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
62
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. The amount of energy that a wave carries is related to the wave’s
amplitude and wavelength. Which of the following waves would carry
the most energy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
_____ 2. Which of the following items would work well in space?
A. drum set
B. guitar
C. radio
D. flashlight
_____ 3. For a laboratory experiment, Antonia wants to measure the amplitude
of a transverse wave. Which of the following distances is equal to the
amplitude of a transverse wave?
A. the distance from one crest to the next
B. the distance from the highest point to the lowest point
C. the distance from one trough to the next
D. the distance from the rest position of the wave to its highest point
63
The Energy of Waves
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 4. Jeff and Lyle were fishing in the ocean. Jeff bet Lyle that the ocean
waves moving quickly by the floating boat would not carry away a
piece of bread that Jeff threw into the water. Which of the following is
a valid explanation for this claim?
A. Ocean waves are surface waves, which move the particles of their
medium in circles.
B. Ocean waves are longitudinal waves, which move the particles of
their medium back and forth.
C. Ocean waves are combination waves, which can move particles
along the ocean surface.
D. Ocean waves are transverse waves, which move the particles of their
medium up and down.
_____ 5. Lanh performed a laboratory experiment about wave motion. He and a
partner held opposite ends of a rope. Each person generated a wave
crest in the same direction at the same time. What happened when the
wave crests met?
A. The amplitude of the combined wave was larger than the amplitude
of the individual waves.
B. The amplitude of the combined wave was smaller than the amplitude
C. The amplitude of the combined wave was the same as the amplitude
D. The waves cancelled each other out.
64
The Energy of Waves
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Sound Waves in Water
Time (s)
Distance traveled (km)
1
1.5
2
3.0
3
4.5
4
?
_____ 6. The data above were collected for sound waves traveling through
water. If all other factors were the same, how far did the sound wave
travel after 4 seconds?
A. 5.0 km
B. 5.5 km
C. 6.0 km
D. 6.5 km
_____ 7. Marie is conducting an experiment about diffraction. Which of the
following hypotheses could she test in order to learn more about
diffraction?
A. Light waves will bend as they pass through a small opening.
B. Light waves will bend as they move from air to water.
C. Light waves will pass through different media at different speeds.
D. Light waves will bounce off of objects.
_____ 8. What is the frequency of a wave that has a wavelength of 3 m and a
speed of 18 m/s?
A. 3 Hz
B. 6 Hz
C. 9 Hz
D. 15 Hz
65
The Energy of Waves
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
OPEN RESPONSE
9. Why are string instruments, such as violins and cellos, hollow with a hole
below the strings?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
10. Why does a rainbow of colors appear after white light passes through a glass
prism?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
66
The Energy of Waves
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
_____ 1. During a laboratory investigation, Aaron used an oscilloscope to create
graphs of sounds that he produced using tuning forks. Which of these
four graphs represents the sound that has the lowest volume?
A. graph 1
B. graph 2
C. graph 3
D. graph 4
_____ 2. Which of these graphs represents the sound that has the lowest pitch?
A. graph 1
B. graph 2
C. graph 3
D. graph 4
_____ 3. If you were conducting an experiment to determine the speed of sound
through water, which of the following factors should you keep
constant?
A. the source of the sound
B. the amplitude of the sound wave
C. the loudness of the sound
D. the temperature of the water
_____ 4. Cletus wants to make ear protectors for people who work around loud
jet engines at Hartsfield Airport in Atlanta. Which of the following
materials should he experiment with for the best results?
A. a material that amplifies sound
B. a material that absorbs sound
C. a material that transmits sound
D. a material that produces sound
67
The Nature of Sound
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 5. Which of the following statements about what happens when a guitar is
played is true?
A. The strings of the guitar are compressed.
B. Particles of air move away from the guitar in all directions.
C. A longitudinal sound wave moves away from the guitar.
D. Sound moves away from the guitar in a single direction.
_____ 6. Jesse walked into a large, dark room and yelled “Hello!” She heard a loud
echo of the word almost immediately. Which of the following is a valid
conclusion that Jesse could draw from her observations?
A. She produced sound waves that reflected off of the walls of the
room.
B. She produced sound waves that created a sonic boom.
C. She produced sound waves that destructively interfered with each
other.
D. She produced sound waves that demonstrated the Doppler effect.
Speed of Sound in Different Gases at 0°C
Medium
Speed (m/s)
Air
331
Helium
972
Hydrogen
1290
Oxygen
317
_____ 7. According to the table, which of the following statements about the
speed of sound is true?
A. The frequency of a sound wave traveling through hydrogen is higher
than the frequency of that wave traveling through helium.
B. The amplitude of a sound wave traveling through helium is greater
than the amplitude of that wave traveling through oxygen.
C. The speed of a sound wave traveling through hydrogen is greater than
the speed of that wave traveling through oxygen.
D. The pitch of a sound wave traveling through oxygen is higher than
the pitch of that wave traveling through hydrogen.
68
The Nature of Sound
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 8. Which statement best describes what happens in the inner ear?
A. Electrical signals are interpreted.
B. Sound waves enter the ear and are channeled through the ear canal.
C. Sound waves are amplified by the hammer, anvil, and stirrup.
D. Sound vibrations are turned into electrical signals.
_____ 9. You hear a single note played on a violin and the sound of a firecracker
exploding. Why is one sound considered music while the other is
considered noise?
A. The violin produces a soft sound, but the firecracker produces a loud
sound.
B. The violin produces sound waves that travel in a single direction, but
the firecracker produces sound waves that spread out in all
directions.
C. The violin produces a sound wave that has a repeating pattern, but
the firecracker produces a complex sound wave that has no repeating
pattern.
D. The violin produces a sound wave that has a high frequency, but the
firecracker produces a sound wave that has a low frequency.
OPEN RESPONSE
10. LaToya generated a longitudinal wave within a coiled-spring toy to model a
sound wave. What is a limitation of LaToya’s model?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
11. Describe the Doppler effect. When might you observe the Doppler effect?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
69
The Nature of Sound
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Blue
Green
A
Red
_____ 1. While performing an experiment on the colors of light at the University
of West Georgia, Pablo mixed three colors of light to form the image
above. What color would Pablo see at point A?
A. yellow
B. magenta
C. white
D. black
_____ 2. What color would Pablo find at point A if pigments were used instead
of colors of light?
A. yellow
B. magenta
C. white
D. black
_____ 3. Which of these conclusions accurately describes the difference between
mixing colors of light and mixing colors of pigment?
A. Mixing colors of light involves color addition, while mixing
pigments involves color subtraction.
B. There are secondary pigments, but there are not secondary colors of
light.
C. Different colors of light always combine to form black light, while
different colors of pigment always combine to form white pigment.
D. Pigments cannot be mixed, while colors of light can.
70
The Nature of Light
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 4. Ultraviolet light has a higher frequency than infrared light has. Which
statement about visible light is true?
A. Blue light has a longer wavelength than orange light has.
B. Green light has a higher frequency than violet light has.
C. Yellow light has a shorter wavelength than blue light has.
D. Red light has a lower frequency than green light has.
_____ 5. Which of the following helps to produce rainbows in the sky?
A. diffraction
B. interference
C. absorption
D. refraction
_____ 6. Why is the light from the flashlight above brighter at point A than it is
at point B?
A. The flashlight is in a vacuum.
B. Light does not travel very fast in air.
C. The light is absorbed and scattered by air particles.
D. Destructive interference makes the light appear dimmer.
_____ 7. Which of the following produces a mirror image?
A. illumination
B. regular reflection
C. scattering
D. absorption
71
The Nature of Light
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 8. Students at the Medical College of Georgia in Augusta are studying to
become X-ray technicians. What precautions must be taken when they
use an X-ray machine to make images of patients’ broken bones?
A. The patients should wear earplugs to protect their ears.
B. The patients’ bodies should be protected with a lead-lined cover.
C. The patients should wear helmets.
D. The technician should wear safety goggles to protect his or her eyes.
OPEN RESPONSE
9. How is sound sent from a radio station in Atlanta to a radio in Macon?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
10. How do X rays form an image of a broken bone, such as a broken arm bone?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
72
The Nature of Light
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
Assessment
CRCT Preparation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Use the table below to answer questions 1 and 2.
Image
Description of Reflection
A
Dog is life size and right side up.
B
Dog is smaller than life size and
upside down.
C
Dog is smaller than life size and
right side up.
D
Dog is larger than life size and
right side up.
_____ 1. The table above describes the reflection of a dog as seen in four
different mirrors. Which image was seen in a concave mirror with the
dog standing less than 1 focal length away?
A. image A
B. image B
C. image C
D. image D
_____ 2. Which image described in the table above is a real image?
A. image A
B. image B
C. image C
D. image D
_____ 3. When Greg stands on a spot in front of a funhouse mirror, he cannot
see a clear image of himself. What conclusion can Greg draw about the
mirror and his position in front of it?
A. Greg is located more than 1 focal length away from a concave
mirror.
B. Greg is located less than 1 focal length away from a convex mirror.
C. Greg is located at the focal point of a concave mirror.
D. Greg is located directly between two plane mirrors.
73
Light and Our World
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 4. Jordan is nearsighted. Which of the following describes how lenses are
used to correct her vision, so that she can focus on objects that are far
away?
A. The concave lenses in Jordan’s eyeglasses refract the light outward.
The convex lenses in her eyes focus the refracted light onto her
retinas.
B. The convex lenses in Jordan’s eyeglasses focus the light inward. The
convex lenses in her eyes focus the refracted light onto her retinas.
C. The concave lenses in Jordan’s eyeglasses refract the light outward.
The concave lenses in her eyes focus the refracted light onto her
retinas.
D. The convex lenses in Jordan’s eyeglasses focus the light inward. The
concave lenses in her eyes focus the refracted light onto her retinas.
_____ 5. Kenneth drew the above diagram of a helium-neon laser during a lab
experiment. What is the purpose of the mirrors inside a laser?
A. The mirrors bring the light into focus.
B. The mirrors reflect photons back through the tube.
C. They filter all but one wavelength of light.
D. They heat the atoms into an excited state.
_____ 6. What would happen if Kenneth passed the red light from the laser
above through a glass prism?
A. The resulting light would be red.
B. The resulting light would be white.
C. The light would be split to form a rainbow.
D. The light would not pass through.
_____ 7. Which of the following statements about Kenneth’s diagram is correct?
A. Laser light contains light waves of many wavelengths.
B. Laser light contains light waves of many colors.
C. Laser light is tightly focused and does not spread out much.
D. Laser light spreads out a lot, even over short distances.
_____ 8. Side mirrors on cars are convex mirrors. What would you see if you put
your face very close to a side mirror?
A. a larger real image of your face, right side up
B. a smaller virtual image of your face, right side up
C. a larger virtual image of your face, right side up
D. a smaller real image of your face, upside down
74
Light and Our World
Name_______________________________ Class __________________ Date __________________
_____ 9. A slide projector makes a small image larger as it projects the image
onto a screen. How does a slide projector magnify an image?
A. The projector uses a convex lens.
B. The projector uses a convex mirror.
C. the projector uses a concave lens.
D. The projector uses a concave mirror.
OPEN RESPONSE
10. Carrie creates a simple camera with a concave lens. What happens when she
takes pictures with the camera?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
11. Describe two ways in which laser light differs from nonlaser light.
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
75
Light and Our World

CRCT Preparation Workbook

Transcription

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