200 SAMPLE MOCK TEST (CLAT)

Transcription

200 SAMPLE MOCK TEST (CLAT)
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Sample Mock Test (CLAT)
SAMPLE MOCK TEST
(CLAT)
Name: _________________________
Marks
Obtained:
Maximum
Marks:
Batch: _________________________
Time: 2 hours
200
Total Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Before using the Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet, check them for any defect like
misprint, fudging of printing, missing pages / Questions / Ovals etc. and ask for issue of relevant
duplicates.
2. No duplicate Question Booklet, OMR Answer Sheet or Extra Blank Sheets of paper shall be
provided except in a situation under Instruction 1 above.
3. Enter your Name and Batch in the space provided above in the Question Booklet and OMR Answer
Sheet with Ball Point Pen Only.
4. There is FIVE Sections (Section I-V) comprising of 200 Objective Questions in the Question
Booklet and each question carries ONE mark. The answers to these objective questions are to be
entered on the OMR Answer Sheet by fully shading the appropriate ovals with HB Pencil Only.
If more than one oval is shaded in answer to a question, that answer shall be deemed to be wrong.
5. Answer all the 200 Hundred Questions.
6. Each question carries 1 (one) mark. There shall be a system of Negative marking wherein 0.25 mark
will be deducted for each of the wrong answers to multiple choice questions.
7. Specific instructions are given at the beginning of each Section and Parts of each Section. Read
them carefully before answering.
8. Possession of all kinds of electronic gadgets in the Exam Hall is strictly prohibited Possession and /
or use of any unfair means shall disqualify the candidate and decision of the Centre Superintendent in
this regard shall be final.
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Marks: Each question carries 1 (one) mark. There shall be a system of Negative marking wherein 0.25
mark will be deducted for each of the wrong answers to multiple choice questions.
SECTION – I: ENGLISH
Directions (Q. 1 to 10): Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
To teach is create a space in which obedience to truth is practiced. Space may sound a vague, poetic metaphor
until we realize that it describes experiences of everyday life. We know what it means to be in a green and open
field; we know what it means to be on a crowded rush hour bus. These experiences of physical space have
parallels in our relations with others. In our jobs we know what is to be pressed and crowded, our working
space diminished by the urgency of deadline and competitiveness of colleagues. But then there are times when
deadlines disappear and colleagues co-operate, when everyone has a space to move, invent and produce, with
energy and enthusiasm. With family and friends, we know how it feels by the expectations of those nearest to
us. But then there are times when we feel accepted for who we are (or forgiven for who we are not), times when
a spouse or a child or a friend gives us the space both to be and to become.
Similar experiences of crowding and space are found in education. To sit in a class where the teacher stuffs our
minds with information, organizes it with finality, insists on having the answers while being utterly uninterested
in our views, and focus us into a grim competition for grades ─ to sit in such a class is to experience a lack of
space for learning. But to study with a teacher who not only speaks but also listens, who not only answers but
asks questions and welcomes our insights, who provides information and theories that do not close doors but
open new ones, who encourages students to help each other learn – to study with such a teacher is to know the
power of a learning space.
A learning space has three essential dimensions: openness, boundaries and an air of hospitality. To create open
learning space is to remove the impediments to learning that we find around and within us; we often create them
ourselves to evade the challenge of truth and transformation. One source of such impediments is our fear of
appearing ignorant to others or to ourselves. The openness of a space is created by the firmness of its
boundaries. A learning space cannot extend indefinitely, if it did, it would not be a structure for learning but an
invitation for confusion and chaos. When space boundaries are violated, the quality of space suffers. The
teacher who wants to create an open learning space must define and defend its boundaries with care. Because
the pursuit of truth can be painful and discomforting, the learning space must be hospitable. Hospitable means
receiving each other, our struggles, our new-born ideas with openness and care. It means creating an ethos in
which the community of truth can form and the pain of its transformation be borne. A learning space needs to
be hospitable not to make learning painless, but to make painful things possible thins without which no learning
can occur – things like exposing ignorance testing tentative hypotheses, challenging false or partial information,
and mutual criticism of thought.
The task of creating learning space with qualities of openness, boundaries and hospitality can be approached at
several levels. The most basic level is the physical arrangement of the classroom. Consider the traditional
classroom setting with row upon row of chairs facing the lecture where learning space is confined to the narrow
alley of attention between student and teacher. In this space, there is no community of truth, hospitality or room
for students to relate to the thoughts of each other. Contrast it with the chairs placed in a circular arrangement
creating an open space within which learners can interconnect. At another level, the teacher can create
conceptual space – space with words in two ways. One is through assigned reading; the other is through
lecturing. Assigned reading, not in the form of speed reading several hundred pages but contemplative reading,
which opens, not fills our learning space. A teacher can also create a learning space by means of lectures. By
providing critical information and a framework of interpretation, a lecturer can lay down boundaries within
which learning occurs.
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We also create learning space through the kind of speech we utter and the silence from which true speech
emanates. Speech is a precious gift and a vital tool, but too often our speaking is an evasion of truth, a way of
buttressing our self-serving reconstructions of reality. Silence must, therefore, be an integral part of learning
space. In silence, more than in arguments, our mind-made world falls away and we are open to the truth that
seeks us. Words often divide us, but silence can unite. Finally teachers must also create emotional space in the
classroom, space that allows feelings to arise and be dealt with because submerged feelings can undermine
learning. In an emotionally honest learning space, one created by a teacher who does not fear dealing with
feelings, the community of truth can flourish between us and we can flourish in it.
Now answer these questions on the basis of reading the above passage.
1.
Which of the following statements best describes the author’s conception of learning space?
(a) Where the teacher is friendly.
(b) Where there is no grim competition for grades.
(c) Where the students are encouraged to learn about space.
(d) Where the teacher provides information and theories which open new doors and encourages
students to help each other learn.
2.
The statement “the openness of a space is created by the firmness of its boundaries”, appears
contradictory.
Which of the following statements provides the best justification for the proposition?
(a) We cannot have a space without boundaries.
(b) Bounded space is highly structured.
(c) When space boundaries are violated, the quality of space suffers.
(d) A teacher can effectively defend a learning space without boundaries.
3.
According to the author, learning is a painful process because
(a) it exposes our ignorance.
(b) our views and hypotheses are challenged.
(c) it involves criticizing the views of others
(d) All of the above reasons
4.
The task of creating learning space with qualities of openness, boundaries and hospitality is
multidimensional. It involves operating at
(a) psychological and conceptual levels
(b) physical, perceptual and behavioral levels
(c) physical, conceptual and emotional levels
(d) conceptual, verbal and sensitive levels
5.
According to the author, silence must be an integral part of learning space because
(a) silence helps to unite us with others to treat a community of truth.
(b) silent contemplation prepares us to construct our mind-made world.
(c) speaking is too often an exercise in the evasion of truth.
(d) speaking is too often a way of buttressing our self-serving reconstruction of reality.
6.
According to the author, an effective teacher does not allow
(a) feeling to arise within the learning space.
(b) silence to become an integral part of the learning space.
(c) learning space to be filled by speed-reading of several hundred passage of assigned reading.
(d) violation of learning space boundaries.
7.
Understanding the notion of space in our relations with others is
(a) to acknowledge the beauty of a poetic metaphor.
(b) exclusively rooted in our experiences of physical space.
(c) to accept a spiritual dimension in our dealings with our peers.
(d) to extend the parallel of physical space to our experiences in daily life.
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8.
Another way of describing the author’s notion of learning space can be summarized in the following
manner:
(a) it is vital that learning be accompanied by unlearning.
(b) learning encompasses such elements as courage, dignity and endeavour.
(c) an effective teacher recognizes the value of empathy.
(d) encourage good learners, discourage indifferent ones.
9.
Conceptual space with words can be created by
(a) assigned reading and lecturing
(b) speed reading and written comprehension
(c) gentle persuasion and deliberate action
(d) creative extrapolation and illustrations
10.
An emotionally honest learning space can only be created by
(a) a teacher committed to join the community of truth.
(b) a teacher who is not afraid of confronting feelings.
(c) a teacher who takes care not to undermine the learning process.
(d) a teacher who worships critical silence.
Directions (Q. 11-15): In each of the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given
word.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
NOTORIOUS
(a) Wildness
(b) Rudeness
(c) Training
(d) Famous
STATIONARY
(a) Moving
(b) Revolutionary
(c) Reactionary
(d) Fixed
CONCORD
(a) Discord
(b) Accord
(c) Regard
(d) Niggardly
VIRTUE
(a) Practice
(b) Craftiness
(c) Degradation
(d) Vice
DISSOCIATE
(a) Desolate
(b) Oscillate
(c) Bifurcate
(d) Associate
Directions (Q. 16-20): In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which is
nearest in meaning to the BOLD word in the sentence.
16.
17.
18.
He has propensity for getting into debt.
(a) Natural tendency
(b) Aptitude
(c) Characteristic
(d) Quality
That case is not amenable to ordinary rules.
(a) Applicable
(b) Contradictory
(c) Interpreted
(d) Dealt with
As they whispered, I felt awkward in their company.
(a) Happy
(b) Ashamed
(c) Convenient
(d) Embarrassed
19.
Lost in his own revery, he forgot that vicissitudes can change the course of man’s life.
(a) Difficulties
(b) Change of fortune (c) Impediments
(d) Good fortunes
20.
He tried to cajole her, but it was in vain.
(a) Enjoin
(b) Coax
(c) Rejoice
(d) Inspire
Directions (Q. 21-25): Each word given below is spilt differently. Select the choice which gives the correct
spelling.
21.
©
(a) predicamant
(b) predicament
(c) pridicament
(d) pridicamant
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22.
(a) impressive
(b) impresive
(c) impresiv
(d) impressiv
23.
(a) spicific
(b) speceific
(c) specific
(d) speccific
24.
(a) weight
(b) weit
(c) weigt
(d) waight
25.
(a) architectur
(b) architecture
(c) arcitecture
(d) architectere
Directions (Q. 26-30): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence
there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers a), b), c), d) and e). Find out which pair of words can be filled
up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make it meaningfully compete.
26.
A number of scientists in the country think that they are on the — of a major —ּ∙
(a) centre, achievement
(b) gateway, breakthrough
(c) periphery, success
(d) threshold, overhaul
(e) frontier, experimentation
27.
Diseases are easily — through — with infected animals.
(a) transferred, affinity
(b) transported, closeness
(c) transplanted, serving
(d) transmitted, contact
(e) generated, entertainment
28.
You must — your house in order before you — to offer advice to others.
(a) set, venture
(b) arrange, proceed
(c) organize, preach
(d) adjust, think (e) maintain, dare
29.
The Indian government should take — — to check terrorist activities in Jammu & Kashmir.
(a) bold, policy
(b) urgent, measurement
(c) firm, steps
(d) courageous, activities (e) concrete, deployment
30.
India’s relations with Pakistan are once again at ———∙
(a) unprecedented, tense(b) abnormal, hostility
(c) dispute, stages
(d) conflict, position
(e) low, ebb
Directions (Q. 31-35): In the following questions, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and
6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts named P, Q, R and S. These four are not given in their proper
order. Read the parts, arrange them properly and find out which of the five combinations given below is
appropriate and mark it as your answer.
31.
1.If the government
P. with a well-planned
R. it has no right
6. to continue in power
(a) SPQR
(b) RQPS
Q. policy against terrorism
S. fails to come up
(c) QPRS
(d) PQRS
(e) QSPR
32.
1. It is the comparative downgrading
P. that has made it
Q of the teaching profession
R. in terms of service conditionsS. and basic infrastructure requirements
6. unattractive for talent
(a) PQRS
(b) QRSP
(c) RSPQ
(d) SPQR
(e) SRQP
33.
1. The Government of India has embarked
P. the people to choose their actual
R. representatives to carry out a dialogue
6. on the future status of the state.
(a) PQRS
(b) SRQP
(c) RPSQ
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Q. on a constitutionally mandated
S. election in Jammu & Kashmir to allow
(d) QSPR
(e) PSRQ
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34.
35.
1. There is a profound change
P. and it is one that
R. does not bode well for the country
6. at least in the immediate future.
(a) PQRS
(b) SRQP
(c) QRPS
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Q. right flank of Indian politics
S. taking place in the
(d) RSPQ
(e) SQPR
1. A country which is proud of its hoary tradition
P. of religious tolerance and is the
Q. both our past and present
R. with forces that threaten to wreck
S. world’s largest democracy has to reckon
6. as well as demolish our dreams of the future.
(a) PSRQ
(b) QSRP
(c) RSQP
(d) SRQP
(e) QPRS
Directions (Q.36-40): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be
in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is e). (Ignore
the errors of punctuation, if any.)
36.
a) All of them /b) took ill /c) after consuming /d) the spurious liquor. /e) No error
37.
a) You must be /b) illiterate if /c) you have had /d) never heard of Marx. /e) No error
38.
a) Reporters intercepted him /b) as he tried /c) of leaving by /d) the back door. /e) No error
39.
a) Although there was still /b) a faint heartbeat /c) he was to all intents /d) and purposes dead. /e) No
error
40.
a) While performing on the stage /b) the singer /c) marked a close rapport /d) with his audience. /e) No
error
SECTION – II: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE / CURRENT AFFAIRS
41.
Which of the following is not used to measure National Income?
(a) Income Method
(b) Value Added Method
(c) Investment Method
(d) Expenditure Method
42.
The Reserve Bank of India: _______.
(a) Draws up Five Year Plans
(b) Formulates monetary policy
(c) Recommends pay revision of Central Government Employees
(d) Adjudicates on the sharing of resources between the Centre and the States
43.
What does ‘Green Banking’ refer to?
(a) Eco-friendly initiatives taken by NGOs
(b) Financing of environmental friendly projects by banks
(c) Tree plantation drive undertaken by the government
(d) All the above
44.
Who is the current governor of the RBI?
(a) C Rangarajan
(b) D Subbarao
(c) Rahul Khullar
(d) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
45.
Who among the following is not a member of the Planning Commission of India?
(a) Arun Maira
(b) Abhijit Sen
(c) Narendra Jadhav
(d) Aruna Roy
46.
Who immortalized the words ‘Stay hungry, stay foolish’?
(a) Bill Gates
(b) Henry Ford
(c) Steve Jobs
(d) Steve Wozniacki
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47.
In which year did the nationalization of banks take place?
(a) 1971
(b) 1969
(c) 1964
(d) 1977
48.
Bulls and Bears are commonly used term in
(a) Stock market
(b) Budeet
(c) Gold Market
(d) Intermadia Technology
49.
What did the Imperial Bank of India come to be known after independence?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Central Bank of India
(c) State Bank of India
(d) None of the above
50.
In cases of anemia, the concentration of _________ in the blood decreases.
(a) Haemoglobin
(b) Thyroids
(c) Calcium
(d) Myosin
51.
Ozone consists of which of the following elements?
(a) Oxygen only
(b) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(c) Hydrogen and Carbon
(d) Oxygen and Carbon
52.
What are pulsars?
(a) Comets
(b) Asteroids
(c) Rapidly spinning stars
(d) High temperature stars
53.
Vitamin E is particularly essential for ___________?
(a) Strengthening of bones
(b) Metabolism
(c) Normal activity of sex glands
(d) Strong teeth
54.
Which gland controls blood pressure?
(a) Adrenal gland
(b) Thyroid gland
(c) Liver
(d) Spleen
55.
Spectacles used for viewing 3D films have _________?
(a) Bifocal lenses
(b) Bi-Convex lenses
(c) Concave lenses
(d) Magnifying lenses
56.
A person sitting in an open car moving at a constant speed of 10 m/s throws a ball straight up into the
air. After two seconds the ball falls:
(a) 20m behind him
(b) 20m in front of him
(c) Into his hand
(d) By his side
57.
During extreme winters, the bursting of water pipes in cold countries can be explained by what fact?
(a) Water expands on freezing
(b) Water releases heat on freezing
(c) High atmospheric pressure
(d) Pipes contract in sub-zero temperatures
58.
Earthquakes are caused by
(a) tectonism
(c) rotation of earth
(b) denudation
(d) revolution of earth
59.
Among various sources of power, India has the largest reserves of ________?
(a) Atomic power
(b) natural gas
(c) crude oil
(d) coal
60.
Rocks that are formed by the solidification of lava are known as __________?
(a) limestone (b) basalt
(c) granite
(d) land stone
61.
Abrasive action of the held rock and the sediment held by the ice on the surface underneath a glacier is
known as which of the following?
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(a) abrasion
(b) scouring
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(c) plucking
(d) none of these
62.
The Palk strait lies between which countries?
(a) India & Pakistan
(b) India & Sri Lanka
(c) India & Myanmar
(d) India & Bangladesh
63.
Which of the following agricultural products is the largest earner of foreign exchange for India?
(a) Sugar Cane
(b) Jute
(c) Tea
(d) Tobacco
64.
Name the first Viceroy of India
(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Lord Robert Clive
(c) Lord Warren Hastings
(d) Lord Canning
Which of the following titles did Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi give up during the Non Cooperation
Movement?
(a) Bharat Ratna
(b) Nobel Prize
(c) Kaiser-e-Hind
(d) Hind Kesari
65.
66.
Which historical monument was built to commemorate the visit of King George V and Queen Mary to
Bombay?
(a) Gateway of India
(b) Victoria Terminal
(c) Churchgate
(d) Grandstand
67.
Which of the following reforms added the provision of separate electorates for Muslims?
(a) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms
(b) Morley-Minto Reforms
(c) Government of India Act 1935
(d) Communal Award
68.
Who was president of the Congress at the historic Lahore Session in 1929?
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) Jawaar Lal Nehru
(c) Madan Mohan Malviya
(d) C Rajagopalachari
69.
Who was the first non-Indian President of the Indian National Congress?
(a) A O Hume
(b) William Wedderburn
(c) George Yule
(d) Henry Cotton
70.
In which year was Tagore’s Jan Gan Man’ first sung at a Congress Session?
(a) 1919
(b) 1911
(c) 1947
(d) 1929
71.
Who among the following has been appointed as the Chief Economist and Senior Vice President of the
World Bank?
(a) Rangarajan Krishnan
(b) Raghuram Rajan
(c) Kaushik Basu
(d) None of the above
72.
Which of the following sites is the latest entry from India to the World Heritage list?
(a) Thekkady
(b) Silent Valley National Park
(c) Western Ghats
(d) None of the above
73.
The new cash transfer & subsidy money scheme of the Central Government will start from
(a) 1.1.2013
(b) 1.4.2013
(c) 1.1.2014
(d) 1.4.2014
74.
The period for the 12th Five Year Plan is
(a) 2012-2017
(b) 2011-2016
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(c) 2013-2018
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(d) 2010-2015
75.
The United Nations has declared 2012 as the International year of
(a) Forest
(b) Tigers
(c) Cooperatives
(d) None of the above
76.
Justice Altamas Kabir is the first Muslim Chief Justice of India. The statement is
(a) False
(b) True
(c) Partly correct
(d) None of the above
77.
Who among the following is the President of the United Nations General Assembly?
(a) Pascal Lamy
(b) Joseph Deiss
(c) Nassir Abdulaziz Al-Nasser (d) None of the above
78.
The renowned writer Indira Goswami, who died recently was a mediator in talks between the
Government and
(a) LTTE
(b) Naxalites
(c) ULFA
(d) None of the above
79.
Who among the following is the winner of Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and
Development, 2012?
(a) Medha Patkar
(b) Ellen Johnson Sirleaf
(c) Mallika Sarabhai
(d) None of the above
80.
Name the 14 year old social activist who was shot at and critically injured by Taliban for her antiTaliban speech?
(a) Fehmida Mirza
(b) Malala Yousufzai
(c) Arfa Karim Randhawa
(d) None of the above
81.
Why was Zakia Ehsan Jafri in news?
(a) She has been fighting for allowing the plea of mercy killing
(b) It was on her petition the Supreme Court formed a special investigation team to investigate the
Gujarat Riot cases
(c) She is the petitioner in the Gujarat Fake Encounter case, in which CBI investigation has been
ordered by the Supreme Court
(d) None of the above
82.
The India-Myanmar friendship road connects Myanmar with
(a) Assam
(b) Manipur
(c) Nagaland (d) None of the above
83.
Which of the following organizations agreed bid to host the FIFA World Cup in 2030 as a single entity?
(a) SAARAC
(b) ASEAN
(c) EUROPEAN UNION
(d) None of the above
84.
Which of the following has become the first European country to ban the full-face Islamic veil in public
places?
(a) Spain
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) UK
85.
‘Dantewada’ which recently came in to news for Maoist attack, is located in
(a) Assam
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) West Bengal
(d) None of the above
86.
The first Indian made web browser which is released recently is named
(a) Ekta
(b) Indus
(c) Epic
(d) None of the above
87.
Unique Identification Authority of India (UIADI) has signed an MoU with which of the following
University, for speedy implementation of its National Unique Identification (UID) numbers project in
the country?
(a) IGNOU
(b) NALSAR
(c) JNU
(d) None of the above
88.
In which year is India expected to complete its Mars mission?
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(a) 2020
89.
90.
(b) 2015
(c) 2025
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(d) None of the above
Abel Prize is given for notable contribution in the field of
(a) Literature
(b) Mathematics
(c) Science
(d) Human Rights
Justice Altamas Kabir is the ………………… Chief Justice of India.
(b) 38th
(c) 39th
(d) 40th
(a) 37th
SECTION – III: MATHEMATICS
91.
Each side of a cube is increased by 50%. The percentage of increase in its surface area is(a) 50
(b) 125
(c) 150
(d) 180
92.
In an examination, a student is awarded 4 marks for every correct answer and loses 2 marks for every
wrong answer. If a student attempted all 75 questions and secured 150 marks, the number of true
questions he attempted is(a) 45
(b) 50
(c) 55
(d) 48
93.
A number when divided by 136 leaves 36 as remainder. If the same number is divided by 17, the
remainder will be(a) 15
(b) 7
(c) 2
(d) 1
94.
The H.C.F. and L.C.M. of two numbers are respectively 12 and 2448. If the difference of the
numbers is 60, their sum is(a) 348
(b) 284
(c) 248
(d) 204
95.
The sum of two numbers is 528 and their HCF is 33. The number of pairs of such numbers is(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
96.
The least number of soldiers that can be arranged in 12, 15 and 18 rows having equal number of
soldiers and can also be arranged in a solid square is(a) 180
(b) 450
(c) 900
(d) 32400
97.
A car starts from A to B and another car starts from B to A. They meet at the exact middle of the
places A and B. After meeting, they complete their journeys in 2 hours and 1 hour 20 minutes
respectively. The ratio of the times taken by them to complete the whole journey is(a) 3 : 2
(b) 16 : 24
(c) 13 : 16
(d) 16 : 13
98.
Four years ago the average age of A, B and C was 25 years. Five years ago the average age of B and C
was 20 years. A’s present age is(a) 60 years
(b) 37 years
(c) 62 years
(d) 15 years
99.
A person goes to a place at the speed of 20 km/hr and returns at the speed of 12 km/hr. His
average speed for the journey is(a) 15 km/hr
(b) 15 ½ km/hr
(c) 16 km/hr
(d) 16 ½ km/hr
100.
A man spends 20% of his salary on items of daily use and 15% of the reminder on house rent. After that
he is left with Rs. 11,560. His salary is(a) Rs. 18,320
(b) Rs. 17,000
(c) Rs. 16,500
(d) Rs. 16,000
101.
100 litres of a mixture contains 10% water and the rest milk. The amount of water that must be added
so that the resulting mixture contains only 50% milk is(a) 70 litres
(b) 72 litres
(c) 78 litres
(d) 80 litres
102.
If A’s income is 40% less than that of B, how much percent is B’s income more than that of A?
(a) 60
(b) 40
(c) 66 2/3
(d) 33 1/3
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103.
A sum of Rs. 1,550 was lent at simple interest partly at the rate of 5% and partly at 8% per annum. The
total interest received after 3 years was Rs. 300. The ratio of the money lent at 5% to that lent at 8% is(a) 5 : 8
(b) 31 : 6
(c) 8 : 5
(d) 16 : 15
104.
The list price of an article is Rs. 2,100 and it is sold at a discount of 10%, During off-season, a
shopkeeper allows a further discount of 5%. During off-season, its selling price will be(a) Rs. 1,785
(b) Rs. 1,795.50(c) Rs. 1,800
(d) Rs. 1,805.50
105.
A pipe can fill a cistern in 12 hours and another pipe can empty completely filled cistern in 18
hours. If both the pipes are opened together, the cistern will be filled in(a) 30 hours
(b) 36 hours
(c) 40 hours
(d) 44 hours
106.
30 carpenters working 6 hours a day can make 750 chairs in 12 days. How many days will it take for 24
carpenters working 9 hours a day to make 1125 similar chairs?
(a) 18
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 20
107.
A train is running at a speed of 45 km/hr and a man is walking at the speed of 5 km/hr in the opposite
direction. If the train crosses the man in 18 seconds, then its length is(a) 200 metre
(b) 220 metre
(c) 180 metre
(d) 250 metre
108.
A boat covers a certain distance down-stream in 8 hours and comes back upstream in 10 hours. If the
speed of the current be 1 km/hr, the distance (in km) of the one-way journey is(a) 60
(b) 70
(c) 80
(d) 90
109.
In a hockey championship, there were 153 matches played. Every two teams played one match with
each other. The number of teams participating in the championship is
(a) 18
(b) 19
(c) 17
(d) 16
110.
Atal can hit a target 3 times in 6 shots, Bhola can hit the target 2 times in 6 shots and Chandra can hit
the target 4 times in 4 shots. What is the probability that at least 2 shots hit the target?
(a) 1/2
(b) 2/3
(c) 1/3
(d) 11/18
SECTION – IV: LOGICAL REASONING
Directions (Q. 111-114): In each of these questions, a statements is given followed by two conclusions. Give
your answer as
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
111.
Statement: This world is neither good nor evil; each man manufactures a world for himself.
Conclusions:
I. Some people find this world quite good.
II. Some people find this world quite bad.
112.
Statements: Domestic demand has been increasing faster than the production of indigenous crude
oil.
Conclusions:
I. Crude oil must be imported.
II. Domestic demand must be reduced.
113.
Statements: Parents are prepared to pay any price for and elite education to their children.
Conclusions:
I. All parents these days are very well off.
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II. Parents have an obsessive passion for a perfect development of their children through good
schooling.
114.
Statement: Form the next academic year, students will have the option of dropping Mathematics and
Science for their school living.
Conclusions:
I. Students who are weak in Science and Mathematics will be admitted.
II. Earlier, the students did not have the choice of continuing their education without these subjects.
Directions (Q. 115-119): Read the following statements to answer these questions.
(i) A, B, C, D, E and F form a group of friends from a club.
(ii) There are two housewives, one lecturer, one architect, one accountant and one lawyer in the group.
(iii) There are 2 married couples in the group.
(iv) The lawyer is married to D who is a house wife.
(v) No lady in the group is either an accountant or architect.
(vi) C, the accountant, is married to F, the lecturer.
(vii) A is married to D, and E is not a housewife.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
Which of the following is a married couple?
(a) BA
(b) AF
(c) CE
(d) None of these
What is E’s profession?
(a) Lawyer
(b) Architect
(c) Lecturer
(d) Accountant
How many members of the group are males?
(a) Can’t say
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
How is B related to C?
(a) Brother or sister
(b) Brother
(c) Sister
(d) Can’t say
Which of the statements (i) to (vii) is superfluous to find answers to the questions above?
(a) i
(b) ii
(c) iv
(d) vi (e) None
Directions (Q. 120-121): Study the information given below to answer these questions:
A, B, C, D are all related. A is the daughter of B. B is the son of C. C is the father of D.
120.
Which of the following statements is true?
(a) B and D are brothers
(b) A is D’s daughter
(c) If E is B’s daughter, then she is A’s sister
(d) If F is C’s grand-daughter, then she is A’s sister
121.
Which of the following is necessarily false?
(a) D is A’s aunt
(c) A is D’s niece
(b) D is A’s uncle
(d) A is D’s father’s son’s grand-daughter.
Directions (Q. 122-124): Study the information given below to answer these questions.
Anna, Bhai, Nana, Dada, Appa and Bal are brothers. They are having their dinner seated at a round
table. Appa is next to Nana who is 3 seats from Dada. Anna is seated 2 seats away from Bal.
122.
123.
124.
©
Which is necessarily true?
(a) Anna is next to Dada
(c) Anna is next to Appa
(b) Anna is next to Bhai
(d) Anna is opposite Nana
If Bal does not want to be with Bhai, then
(a) Appa has to sit next to Bhai
(c) Dada is next to App a
(b) Bhai has to sit next to Anna
(d) Dada and Appa are both next to Anna.
Which of the following is necessarily true?
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(a) Appa is to the right of Nana
(c) Nana is to the left of Anna
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(b) Appa is to the left of Dada
(d) None of these
Directions (Q. 125-127): Find the missing link in the sequences given in each of these questions.
125.
126.
127.
1, 4, 9, 25,?
(a) 48
(b) 49
(c) 52
(d) 56
ACD, EGI, JLM, ?
(a) MNO
(b) NOP
(c) NPR
(d) None of these
(c) Y88B
(d) Z88B
Q1F, S2E, U6D, W21C,?
(a) Y66B
(b) Y44B
128.
In a certain code language, if A is written as C, B as D, C as E and so on up to Z, then how will
PECULIAR be written in that code?
(a) RGEXNKCT
(b) RGEWNKBT
(c) RGEWNKCT
(d) RGEWKNCS
129.
If ‘TV’ is called ‘Radio’, ‘Radio’ is called ‘Aeroplane’, ‘Aeroplane’ is called ‘Helicopter’, ‘Helicopter’
is called ‘Bus’, ‘Bus’ is called ‘Bike’, ‘Bike’ is called ‘Water’, ‘Water’ is called ‘Frog’, Frog’ is called
‘Tomato’, ‘Tomato’ is called ‘Furniture’ and ‘Furniture’ is called ‘Cigarette’, then what is Tomato
sauce made up of?
(a) Water
(b) Furniture
(c) Frog
(d) None of these
130.
Renu is elder than Anita. Rocky is younger than Anita. Sohan is elder than Renu. Who is the eldest in
the group?
(a) Renu
(b) Anita
(c) Sohan
(d) Rocky
131.
Among the six cities ─ P, Q, R, S, T and U ─ P is not a hill station, Q and T are historical places; S is
not an industrial city; P and S are not historical cities; P and Q are not similar kinds of cities. Which of
two cities are historical places?
(a) P and S
(b) R and S
(c) P and R
(d) Q and U
132.
Animesh walked 30 metres towards West, turned to his right and walked 20 metres. He then turned to
his left and walked 10 metres, then turned to his left and walked 5 metres. He again turned to his left
and continued walking. In which direction is Animesh walking now?
(a) North-East
(b) North
(c) South-East
(d) West
Directions (Q. 133-137): In each of these questions, two statements are followed by two possible inferences.
Take the two given statements to be true even if they are at variance with the know facts and then mark your
answer as
(a) if only conclusion A follows.
(b) if only conclusion B follows.
(c) if neither A nor B follows.
(d) if both A and B follow.
133.
Statements: All books are pencils.
All Pencils are flowers.
Conclusions: I. All books are flowers
II. Some flowers are books.
134.
Statements: Some pens are tables.
No table is blue.
Conclusions: I. No pen is blue.
II. No blue thing is pen.
135.
Statements: Some trees are horses.
Some ships are trees.
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Conclusions: I. Some horses are ships.
II. Some trees are not ships.
136.
Statements: Some trees are boats.
All trees are ships.
Conclusions: I. Some ships are trees.
II. Some trees are ships.
137.
Statements: All goats are animals.
All animals are four-footed.
Conclusions: I. All goats are four-footed.
II. Some four-footed are goats.
Directions (Q. 138-140): Study the two statements, the ‘Assertion’ and the ‘Reason’ given in each of the
following questions. Then mark your answer as
(a) if both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’.
(b) if both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not a correct explanation of ‘A’.
(c) if ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.
(d) if both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are false.
138.
Assertion (A): There is rainbow in the sky only after rains.
Reason (R): Water drops suspended in the air break up sun rays into seven colours.
139.
Assertion (A): Prices can be brought down by increasing production.
Reason (R): It is so because supply of the goods is made more than its demand.
140.
Assertion (A): Indian President is the head of the State.
Reason (R): Indian Parliament consists of the President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Direction (141-142): Questions are based on the passage given below.
Rage killings are on the rise in the city. Police stations have registered 16% more cases as compared to the
corresponding period last year. In most of these cases minor altercations have led to the crime. While cautioning
the public, the Commissioner of Police in a press conference said that the number of rage killings in the city is
fast approaching the figure for deaths due to road accidents which is on decline. A leading psychologist has
attributed this to the growing complexity of city life and resulting intolerance due to exponential rise in
population, large disparity between social strata and other modern-day socio-economic factors.
141.
Which of the following, if true, would make the psychologist’s argument stronger?
(a) Residents dislike influx of outsiders into the city.
(b) There is a large and widening difference in income levels.
(c) Increase in city population has put immense pressure on basic infrastructure like water, electricity
and open space.
(d) The number of deaths due to road accidents is on decline.
142.
Which of the following was never intended by the Police Commissioner?
(a) The number of deaths due to rage killing can cross the number of deaths through road accidents.
(b) The road-safety measures taken by the police have shown positive results.
(c) The exponential increase in city population is responsible for rise in rage killings.
(d) Public should be more cautious during social interactions.
Direction (143-144): Questions are based on the passage given below.
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English should be the only language used in the Parliament. There is no reason for the country to spend money
printing documents in several different languages, just to cater to people who cannot speak English. The
government has better ways to spend taxpayer’s money, almost all of whom are comfortable with English.
Legislators who come to the capital should learn to speak English.
143.
Which of the following, if true, would make the speaker’s argument stronger?
(a) There is currently a law that says the government must provide legislators with documents in their
language of choice.
(b) Legislators who do not speak English are more close to the common man.
(c) India has the largest English speaking population in the world.
(d) Individual states have different official languages.
144.
Which of the following, if true, would make the speaker’s argument weaker?
(a) The government currently translates official documents into more than twenty languages.
(b) English is the most difficult language in the world to learn.
(c) Most legislators who do not know English learn English within two months of their election to the
Parliament.
(d) Making English the official language is a politically unpopular idea.
145.
While travelling to China, a low ranking Indian official asked a Chinese official why
Chinese people are so inscrutable. The official looked calm and friendly, responding in a
gentle voice that he much preferred to think upon his race as inscrutable than of his race as
wanting in perspicacity.
Of the following statements, which best describes the Chinese official’s comment?
(a) What a person lacks in perception may be a result of the carelessness of the observer,
instead of the obscurity within the object being observed
(b) If India and China were ever to understand one another, there will need to be a much
better cultural understanding
(c) All people are inscrutable, not just the Chinese
(d) The Chinese distrusts Indians
146.
Partly because of bad weather, but also partly because some major pepper growers have
switched to high-price cocoa, world production of pepper has been running we below
worldwide sales for three years. Pepper is consequently in relatively short supply. The price
of pepper he, soared in response: it now equals that of cocoa.
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
(a) Pepper is a profitable crop only if it is grown on large scale
(b) World consumption of pepper has been unusually high for three-years.
(c) World production of pepper will return to previous levels once normal weather returns.
(d) Surplus stocks for pepper have been reduced in the last three years.
(e) The profit that the growers of pepper have made in the past three years has been
unprecedented.
147.
Sally overslept. Therefore, she did not eat breakfast. She realized that she was late for
school, so she ran as fast as she could and did not see a hole in the ground which was in her
path. She tripped and broke her ankle. She was then to the hospital and while lying in bed
was visited by her friend, who wanted to know why she had got up so late.
Which of the following conclusions can be made the above passage?
(a) Because Sally did not eat her breakfast, she broke her ankle.
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(b) Sally’s friend visited her in the hospital because she wanted to know why she was late
for school.
(c) Sally did not notice the hole because she overslept.
(d) Sally broke her ankle because she went to bed late the previous night.
(e) Sally’s broken ankle meant she did not got to school that day.
148.
A person who agrees to serve as mediator between two warring factions at the request of both abandons
his impartiality. To take sides at a later point would be to suggest that the earlier presumptive
impartiality was a sham.
The passage above emphasizes which of the following points about mediators?
(a) They should feel free to take sides in the dispute right from the start, provided that they make their
biases publicly known
(b) They should not agree to serve unless they are equally acceptable to all parties to a dispute.
(c) They should reserve the right to abandon their impartiality so as not to be open to the charge of
having been deceitful.
(d) They should not agree to serve unless they are committed to maintain a stance of impartiality.
149.
For acrylic, a clear rigid plastic, to be cast, fairly complex molecules must be induced to link up, in a
process called polymerization. Polymerization is exothermic; i.e., its net effect is that each time
molecules link, a small quantity of heat is generated. In addition, the rate of linking speeds up as
temperature increases.
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage above?
(a) If air temperatures are kept steady when acrylic is cast, the rate at which the molecules link remains
constant.
(b) Unless the heat that results from linking of molecules is drawn off promptly, there will be a heat
built up at an accelerating rate as acrylic is cast.
(c) Once the process of polymerization has been induced, it cannot be slowed before all possible links
among molecules have been formed.
(d) In casting of thin sheets of acrylic, which lose heat quickly to the surrounding air, polymerization
proceeds much faster than it does in the casting of thick pieces.
150.
The extent to which a society is really free can be gauged by its attitude towards artistic expression.
Freedom of expression can easily be violated in even the most outwardly democratic of societies. When
a government arts council withholds funding from a dance performance that is members deem
“obscene”, the voices of a few bureaucrats have in fact censored the work of the choreographer, thereby
committing the real obscenity of repression.
Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument above?
(a) Failing to provide financial support for a performance is not the same as actively preventing or
inhibiting it.
(b) The term obscenity has several different definitions that should not be used interchangeably for
rhetorical effect.
(c) Members of government arts councils are screened to ensure that their beliefs reflect those of the
majority.
(d) The council’s decision could be reversed if the performance were altered to conform to public
standards of appropriateness.
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SECTION – V: LEGAL APTITUDE
Direction: In answering the following questions, you should not rely on any rule(s)/principle(s) except the
rule(s)/ principle(s) that are supplied for every problem. Further, you should not assume any fact other than
those stated in the problem. The aim is to test your ability to properly apply a rule to a given set of facts, even
when the result is absurd or unacceptable for any other reason. It is not the aim to test any knowledge of law
you may already possess.
Instruction (Q. 151-170):
This section consists of five problems (with 20 questions) in total. Each problem consists of a set of rules and
facts. Apply the specified rules to the set of facts and answer the questions.
Problem 1 (For questions 151 to 155)
Rules:
(A) Trespass to land means interference with the possession of land without lawful justification.
(B) Trespass could be committed either by a person himself entering the land of another or doing the same
through some material object: stick stones etc.
(C) When a person enters certain premises under the authority of some law and after having entered there
abuses that authority by committing some wrongful act there, he will be considered a trespasser.
(D) Where there is justification to enter the premises it is no trespass.
Facts: A and B were neighbours and were also enemies were therefore always looking for an opportunity to
cause trouble to each other. Here are some incidents decide accordingly.
151.
A had a dog which every night he use to let into B’s house to shit in their garden. B sued him for
trespass. Can he do so?
(a) Yes, because its interference with the possession and enjoyment of his land
(b) No, because it’s the dog and not A
(c) No, because such things are common in a society.
(d) Yes, because it’s morally wrong to do so.
152.
A planted a babool tree in his premises and the leaves from therein use to fall in Mr B’s premises.
Is this trespass?
(a) No, because it’s the plant and A possibly cannot help it.
(b) No, because such things are common in a society.
(c) Yes, because it’s morally wrong to do so.
(d) Yes, because its interference with the possession and enjoyment of his land.
153.
A use to burn all the trash in his garden and the smoke from therein use to go to B’s house. Can you
call this trespass?
(a) No, because it’s the plant and A possibly cannot help it.
(b) No, because such things are common in a society.
(c) Yes, because its interference with the possession and enjoyment of his land
(d) Yes, because it’s morally wrong to do so.
154.
A use to pick everyday B’s newspaper early in the morning and use to keep it there again. He never
stepped into his property only use to pick it up from the gate. Is this trespass.
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(a) No, because B is not been deprived of his property and enjoyment...
(b) No, because such things are common in a society.
(c) Yes, because its interference with the possession and enjoyment of his property.
(d) Yes, because it’s morally wrong to do so.
155.
A’s 3 years old son was playing on the porch when he fell into B’s premises. A ran into B’s
premises to get his son. B sued him for trespass. Will he succeed?
(a) No, because B is not been deprived of his possession of his property its enjoyment..
(b) No, because the action was justified and proper.
(c) Yes, because its interference with the possession and enjoyment of his property.
(d) Yes, he didn’t take his permission.
Problem 2 (For questions 156 to 160)
Rules
(A) Even though the force used is very trivial and does not cause any harm, the wrong is still constituted.
Physical hurt need not be there. Least touching of another in anger is battery.
(B) It is essential that the use of force should be intentional and without any legal justification.
(C) When the defendant by his act creates an apprehension in the mind of the plaintiff that he is going to
commit battery against the plaintiff, the wrong of assault is completed.
Facts: C and D were school mates and were arch enemies and they always use to play tricks on each other.
Decide in the situation given.
156.
C was writing one day with his fountain pen. To make it wrong he just moved it randomly in this
process some ink fell on D. he wants to sue C for battery. Will he succeed?
(a) No, because intention is very necessary for battery.
(b) Yes, because the loss has been suffered by and therefore should be compensated.
(c) No, because it’s a very trivial thing.
(d) Yes, because such miscreants who do such things should be punished.
157.
C did the act intentionally. Will your answer differ now?
(a) No, he is not liable for battery
(b) No, it’s does not matter because hehas suffered and therefore should be compensated.
(c) Yes, because it’s a very important thing which constitutes battery.
(d) Yes, because miscreants who do such things should be punished.
158.
C only showed him that he was going to put ink on him but he didn’t actually. Is he liable for
battery?
(a) No, because there is no physical harm which he has suffered
(b) Yes, because he got scared
(c) Yes, because naughty should be punished and who knows he might have just done it the next time.
(d) No, because it’s only assault.
159.
D had a magical pencil with which if something is written it gets erased on its own. He wrote
something on C’ shirt but it later got erased. C sued him for battery. Will he succeed?
(a) No, because there is no physical harm which he has suffered
(b) Yes, because its battery and he has suffered some physical inconvenience
(c) Yes, because naughty kids should be punished
(d) No, because it’s only assault.
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160.
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One day C had a fight with E and while he was going to hit E his hand touched D slightly. D sued
him for battery. Will he succeed?
(a) No, because such things happen all the time you cannot just sue everyone.
(b) Yes, but it will be assault.
(c) No, because there is no intention to hit D
(d) Yes, because such incidents should be made as precedent for other people not to indulge in
fights.
Problem 3 (For questions 161 to 165)
Rules:
(A) The government of India may sue or to be sued by the name of the Union of India and the government of a
state may sue or be sued by the name of the state.
(B) The ruling principle is that Government is not liable for torts of its employees committed in the course of
performance of sovereign functions.
(C) A suit lies against the Government for wrongs done by public servants in the course of employment such as
causing death of any person.
Facts: Mr R use to work for the army and was a truck driver. One day he got drunk and hit one man walking
alongside road. The man sued the govt. for vicariously being liable.
161.
Will he succeed?
(a) No, because the he is govt. on driver
(b) Yes, because he has done the act negligently while being on duty.
(c) No, because it’s not his authorised job and is his personal fault.
(d) Yes, because someone has suffered an injury.
162.
He wasn’t drunk and was just driving and thereafter caused an accident. Will the govt. be liable now?
(a) Yes, because the he is govt. on driver and was performing his sovereign function.
(b) No, because he has done the act negligently while being on duty.
(c) No, because it’s not his authorised job.
(d) Yes, because someone has suffered an injury.
163.
One day was driving his personal motorbike going to the city to fetch some vegetables on his way
he met with an accident. The injured party plans to sue the government. Can he?
(a) Yes, because he is a government employee
(b) No, because it’s was his own personal work and not authorised by the government
(c) Yes, because since he is dependent on the government that government will be liable anyways.
(d) No, because it’s his own fault and he is liable criminally himself.
164.
One day Mr R took his wife and son in his truck while he was going to Kashmir on duty. The truck
met with an accident. The wife on her behalf and her kid sued the govt. Will she succeed?
(a) Yes, because she has suffered at the hands of a govt. servant.
(b) No, because it’s her husband’s faults and not government’s.
(c) Yes, because he was on his authorised duty when the accident took place.
(d) No, because it cannot be government’s fault anyway.
165.
Mr R was ill one day so he asked his friend Bunty to drive the truck to Kashmir has he had to report on
the following day. On his way to Kashmir Bunty caused an accident. The injured wants to sue the
government. Can he do so?
(a) Yes, because he has suffered at the hands of a govt. servant.
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(b) No, because it’s her husband’s faults and not government’s.
(c) Yes, because he was on his authorised duty but was the duty was wrongly performed when the
accident took place.
(d) No, because it cannot be government’s fault’s anyway its only R’s fault.
Problem 4 (For questions 166 to 170)
Rules
(A) Malicious prosecution consists in instituting unsuccessful criminal proceedings maliciously and without
reasonable and probable cause. When such prosecution causes actual damage to the party prosecuted, it is a tort
for which he can bring an action.
(B) No action can be bought, as a general rule, in the case of civil proceedings even though the same are
malicious and have been brought without any reasonable cause.
Explanation: Prosecution in the present context means a judicial prosecution.
Facts: A, alleged that his neighbour’s brother G, had stolen some money from his house and made a complaint
to the police though he believed in it. After some initial inquiries he was let off free. G sued A for malicious
prosecution.
166.
Will he succeed?
(a) Yes, because it was a false complaint
(b) No, because the judicial prosecution had not started hence no malicious prosecution.
(c) Yes, because it’s morally wrong to institute complaint against someone in the police.
(d) No, because he was let off later and he genuinely believed it was true.
167.
A knew it very well that the complaint was false but he still made a complaint against G but he was
let off by the police after an inquiry. G sued A for malicious prosecution. Will he succeed?
(a) No, because he was let off so it does not matter.
(b) Yes, because there was an inquiry and his reputation has been maligned.
(c) Yes, because he was troubled and he suffered damages.
(d) No, because there was no judicial inquiry
168.
A knew that the complaint filed was false and the magistrate also conducted an inquiry and after that
he was let off. He sued the A will he succeed now?
(a) No, because he was let off so it does not matter.
(b) Yes, because there was an inquiry and his reputation has been maligned.
(c) Yes, because there was a judicial inquiry and he was let off later.
(d) No, because there was no judicial inquiry
169.
A, alleged that G had stolen money from his house and believed it also. On a judicial inquiry being
held G was found guilty of the offence alleged. After the proceedings were over he filed a suit for
malicious prosecution. Will he succeed?
(a) Yes, because there has been a judicial inquiry in the matter.
(b) No, because he did not know for sure that G had stolen
(c) Yes, because his reputation has been maligned
(d) No, because he has been convicted for the offence.
170.
A and G had entered into a contract and the entire had come to know about it. But later G refused to
perform his part of the contract. A filed a suit in the court and won. He now wants to sue G for
malicious prosecution. Can he?
(a) Yes, because there has been a judicial inquiry in the matter.
(b) No, because it’s civil matter and suit for malicious prosecution cannot be filed.
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(c) Yes, because his reputation has been maligned and he won he case
(d) No, because he has suffered losses because of it.
Direction: (Q.171-Q.200): In this section every question is appended with facts and principles, and multiplechoice answers. You are required to read the facts carefully, then read the principles, apply the principles to the
given facts and make a select one the option which is the most appropriate answer from the given choices.
171.
Principle I.: If the subject of the offer ceases to exist or passes from one person to another; then it
would constitute a revocation.
Principle II.: The fact of revocation of an offer should be known to the person to whom the offer is
made before he can accept it.
Facts: Gyan Chand a famous hockey player wishes to raise money for charity and for his reason offers
to sell his hockey stick to his rich friend Sachin Tendua for 25 lacs. Sachin Tendua asks for a few days
to think over it. After three days however he sees on television that Gyan Chand has sold the hockey
stick to Sourav Gingly for a sum of 50 lacs. Sachin Tendua is miffed and writes a letter to Gyan Chand
along with a cheque of 25 lacs accepting his offer of buying the hockey stick. Gyan Chand naturally is
unable to provide him with the hockey stick and Sachin sues him for breach of contract. Is Gyan Chand
liable?
(a) Gyan Chand is liable because he did not fulfil the terms of the agreement.
(b) Gyan Chand is not liable because his offer had been revoked.
(c) Gyan Chand is not liable because Sachin took a long time to accept the offer.
(d) Gyan Chand is liable because he did not communicate the revocation of the offer to Sachin
Tendua.
172.
Principle: The doctrine of privity of contract states that no one except the parties to contract can sue on
its breach even though the breach affects him/her.
Facts: Jina is the sole earning member of her family. She signs a modeling agreement with a famous
modeling agency. One of the terms of the contract states that in case she has an accident and is unable
to model, her mother would be paid a sum of 2 lacs. Unfortunately she suffers from an accident but the
agency refuses to pay her mother citing the doctrine of privity of contract. Is it a case of privity of
contract?
(a) Yes, the contract was signed between Jina and the agency and Jina’s mother was not a party to the
contract.
(b) Jina’s mother was mentioned in the contract and the clause was for her benefit; so she can claim
under the contract.
(c) None of the above.
173.
Principle: Anybody who handles hazardous substance would be liable for any mishap caused by such
substance even though he is not negligent.
Facts: The Electricity Board is suffering from some technical snag due to bad weather and this results
in a short circuit in one of the grid networks. This results in destruction of electric equipment in certain
homes. Is the board liable for the damage caused?
(a) The board is not liable because it was not their fault.
(b) The board is not liable because electricity is a dangerous substance.
(c) The board is not liable because they are a public utility service
(d) The board is liable.
174.
Principle: An agreement by way of water or a bet is void.
Facts: Two famous cyclists agreed that they would race to the beach from some 5 kms away. They also
agreed that if one of them failed to appear on the day of the race; the other would be declared the
winner and would receive the prize money to be given by a cola major. The party which fails to appear
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will also forfeit Rs. 5000 the fee amount to the other party for the no-show at the race. On the day of the
race; the defendant fails to appear following which the plaintiff cyclist sues him for Rs. 5000. The
defendant claims that this was a wagering agreement. Is it so?
(a) This is a wagering agreement because the outcome is uncertain.
(b) This is not a wagering agreement because the prize money is not paid out of the cyclist’s pocket.
(c) This is a wagering agreement because the cyclist failing to appear has to pay Rs. 5000 to the other
cyclist.
175.
Principle: A master is liable for the wrongful acts of his servant done in the course of the employment.
Facts: Orissa Harbour Board owns a number of cranes each driven by a skilled driver. They lent out
some of their cranes to a stevedore company involved in loading the ships. Due to the negligence of one
of these drivers a heavy cargo fell upon one of the workers and injured him. Who will be liable?
(a) The crane driver is liable.
(b) The stevedore company is liable.
(c) The crane driver as well as the harbor board is liable.
(d) The crane driver as well as the stevedore company is liable.
176.
Principle: A person is only liable for those consequences of his negligent acts which he can reasonably
foresee.
Facts: Amar was carrying some diamonds with him on the train. Due to negligence of the train driver
there was an accident and A was injured. When he regained his consciousness he found that his
diamonds had been stolen. He sues the railways for his injuries as well as the price of the diamonds. Is
the railway liable for the price of the diamonds?
(a) The railway is not liable because the loss was not reasonably foreseeable.
(b) The railway is not liable because they do not take responsibility for the passengers’ luggage.
(c) The railway is liable because such losses are foreseeable in the event of an accident.
177.
Principle: For any act authorized by a principal and done by an agent, both of them are liable.
Facts: Mrs Prasad owned two flats in a multistoried building at Ballygunj Circular Road, Kolkata but
was not satisfied with the income. She approached the office of Khandelwal and Company to consult
them in regards to the matter of her property. Rajiv, the managing clerk of the company, chose to help
her and advised her to sell the two flats and invest the money in a better way. She was asked to sign two
deeds that were supposedly two sales deeds. However, the sales deeds were gift deeds in the name of
Rajiv. He disposed of the property and misappropriated the proceeds. It was found that Rajiv had acted
solely for his own benefit and not for the benefit of the firm. Mrs. Prasad brought a suit against the firm.
(a) The firm is not liable as Rajiv had acted without the knowledge of the firm.
(b) The firm is not liable as it has not authorized Rajiv to act on its behalf.
(c) Rajiv is liable as he acted solely for his personal benefit.
(d) The firm is not liable as it has not authorized Rajiv to commit the wrong.
178.
Principle: Whoever commits an act under the influence of alcohol administered to him without his
knowledge or against his wishes will not be held liable for his actions.
Facts: Sobhan liked to lead a fast life and usually drove really fast, rather dangerously. When his dad
got him a new car happy that he had got into National Law School, he went to party with his friends.
His friends got him drunk although Sobhan protested and on their way back, Sobhan exceeded the
speed limit and rammed his car into a street light post. The traffic cop on duty booked him for rash and
negligent driving and later for drunken driving.
(a) Sobhan was under the influence of alcohol which was administered to him against his wishes hence
he is not liable.
(b) Sobhan is liable since he usually drove fast and dangerously and this act was not under the influence
of alcohol.
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(c) Sobhan is liable since his protest was symbolic and he could have avoided drinking if he really
wanted to.
(d) both (b) and (c).
179.
Principle: Any person may use reasonable force in order to protect his property or person. However,
the force employed must be proportionate to the apprehended danger.
Facts: Ajith was walking on a desolate road when Ramu came with a knife and said to Ajith, ‘Your life
or your wallet’. Ajith pulled out a revolver from his pocket. On seeing the revolver, Ramu ran but Ajith
shot him on his legs.
(a) Ajith will be punished, as there was no danger to his property.
(b) Ajith will not be punished, as the force he used was proportionate to the apprehended injury.
(c) Ajith will be punished, as the force employed was disproportionate to the apprehended injury.
(d) As Ramu ran to escape, there was no longer a threat to Ajith’s property. Hence Ajith will be
punished.
180.
Principle: An injurious statement about a person which is published amounts to defamation.
Facts: Bhishan Sachdev is invited as a guest to the famous chat-show. ‘We are Indians’ hosted by
noted journalist Rekha Dutt. During the chat-show he is asked what he thinks of the opposition party.
Bhishan claims that the opposition includes a group of thugs and robbers. Raghu Pal who is a member
of the opposition sues Bhishan for defamation. Will he succeed?
(a) Raghu Pal will succeed since Bhishan Sachdev made injurious statements.
(b) Raghu Pal will not succeed since it is not defamation.
(c) Raghu Pal will succeed since Bhishan Sachdev made that statement on a public talk show.
(d) Raghu Pal will succeed since the remark amounts to defamation.
181.
Principle: Consideration is the touchstone of a contract. Consideration can be money, a promise to do,
or forbear to do something.
Facts: Abhimanyu hit an auto rickshaw while driving his car. They negotiated and agreed not to go to
the police station or file a criminal case. Later the auto rickshaw wants to file a criminal complaint.
Decide.
(a) There was a valid consideration as the auto rickshaw driver had agreed not to go to court and it is a
valid contract.
(b) There was no contract as there was no consideration, it was only a negotiation. Hence, the driver can
go to court.
(c) No one can take away a right to legal remedy. Therefore, the driver can go to court.
(d) The driver should respect the agreement. He is morally bound to do so.
182.
Principle: An act which was intended to cause the death of a person but failed in resulting to death due
to the intervention of an unforeseen event is termed as an act of attempt to murder.
Facts: Rajender Tyabji was a well known politician who was expected to win the coming elections
again and hence making a mark in history of politics of his contingency by winning consecutively for
five times in a row. Surender was the son of Inder, who was the candidate contesting against Rajender.
In the fear that his father would lose the elections, Surender shot Rajender when he was coming out
from a party meeting. However, the bullet was intercepted by the wallet in the pocket of Rajender and
he escaped from death.
(a) Surender is liable for the murder of Rajender.
(b) Surender is liable for attempt to murder of Rajender.
(c) Surender is not liable at all as the injury which finally resulted was not of the nature to cause death.
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183.
Sample Mock Test (CLAT)
Principle: Where one person authorizes another to commit a tort, the liability for that will be not only
of that person who has committed it but also of that person who authorizes it. For any act authorized by
the principal and done by the agent both of them are liable.
Facts: The plaintiff’s husband gave some amount to his friend who was an employee in the defendant
bank for being deposited in the plaintiff’s account. No receipt was obtained for the deposits. The bank
employee misappropriated the amount.
(a) The defendant bank is liable as its employee’s act amounts to fraud.
(b) The defendant bank is not liable as the employee was not acting in the scope of bank’s employment.
(c) The defendant bank is not liable as the employee should have asked for a receipt.
184.
Principle: Remoteness of consequences—One is liable only for those consequences which are not too
remote from his conduct.
Facts: The defendant’s servants negligently left a horse van unattended in a crowded street. A child
threw stones at the horses. The horses bolted and a policeman was injured in an attempt to stop them
with a view to rescuing the woman and children on the road.
(a) The defendant’s servants are not liable as the mischief of the child was the proximate cause and the
negligence of the defendant’s servants was the remote cause.
(b) Defendant is liable because such mischief on part of children was anticipated.
(c) Defendant is liable because his servants were negligent in leaving the horses unattended.
185.
Principle: Performance of a duty imposed by law does not amount to valid consideration.
Facts: A football club engaged the local police force of a city, to provide services during a football
match. The club later sought to avoid the contract on the grounds that the police were obliged to
perform the act anyway, as a matter of general law.
(a) The police cannot expect to be remunerated for their services because it is in performance of a duty
imposed by law, to maintain law and order.
(b) The police must be remunerated by the football club because they have provided a service to a
private club.
(c) The police must be remunerated by the football club because they have gone beyond the call of
duty.
186.
Principle: Mistakes as to the essential terms of the contract render it void.
Facts: Two parties negotiated a contract for the sale of land on the basis of a specified rate per unit of
area. The buyer, however, believed that the land was being sold at the stated price, as per one particular
unit of measurement and the seller thought that the price applied to another unit of measurement. Can
the contract be avoided on grounds of mistake?
(a) Yes, because the mistake is one as to a matter of fact essential to the contract.
(b) No, because the mistake is not one as to a matter of fact essential to the contract.
(c) No, because the contract has been concluded.
187.
Principle: There is no legal remedy for damage without injury.
Facts: Anil Sambani was doing very well in his transport business. His rival brother Mukesh Sambani
arranged with other traders not to transport anything on Anil Sambani’s trucks as his trucks were
charging too low a price and injuring the business of others. Soon, Anil started suffering huge losses.
He came to know of this agreement and wants legal action against Mukesh Sambani. Decide
(a) Mukesh injured Anil’s business and therefore should be liable to compensate for the losses.
(b) The agreement was purely business prudent and was done without any malice.
(c) There has been no legal injury to Anil though he has suffered damage and therefore, he cannot claim
anything.
(d) Mukesh and all other traders should compensate Anil.
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188.
Sample Mock Test (CLAT)
Principle: Entering into another’s property without permission amounts to trespass.
Facts: A, a student, throws stones at his professor’s house. The professor wants compensation and
moves to court for proceedings against the student. Decide.
(a) There was no entry into the professor’s house by the student and therefore there was no trespass.
(b) The stone entered the house and amounts to trespass as it interferes and disturbs the professor.
(c) The professor has no remedy in civil law.
(d) The student was throwing stones to show his resentment against the professor and since nothing was
damaged, there exists no cause of action.
189.
Principle: A legal act, immaterial of the motive, will not give rise to a claim for damages.
Facts: Kumar, an official in the Muncipal Corporation of Bangalore had always had open enmity
towards Feroze. On learning that Feroze’s house violated certain guidelines that were in force regarding
that particular area, Kumar immediately ordered the demolition of the said structure.
Can Feroze move against Kumar?
(a) Feroze can claim compensation if he proves that Kumar’s act was malicious.
(b) Feroze can claim compensation since none of the other illegal structures in Bangalore were
demolished.
(c) Feroze cannot claim compensation because demolition is a statutory function of the government.
(d) Feroze cannot claim compensation because the act was authorized by law regardless of his enmity
with Kumar.
190.
Principle: Bailment is the delivery of goods into the complete control of another person for some
contractual purpose after which the goods must be returned to the rightful owner.
Facts: Bhargavi took her jewels to Thappa the local goldsmith to have them melted and recast. Every
evening after the work was completed for the day he would lock the jewels in a box and leave the box
with the goldsmith but keep the key with himself. One day the box was broken open and the jewels
were stolen. Is Thappa liable?
(a) Thappa is liable since the box was in his workshop and thus he was responsible for the goods.
(b) Thappa is liable since there was a contract of bailment between Bhargavi and himself, regarding the
jewels.
(c) Thappa is not liable since the keys were not given to him thus depriving him off complete control
over the jewels and therefore the contract of bailment was not complete.
(d) Unless Bhargavi must prove that Thappa was involved in the theft, Thappa cannot be held liable.
191.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: An occupier is not normally liable to a trespasser except in respect of
willful act intended or cause him harm or done with reckless disregard.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Toney, a richman, had kept a ferocious dog to guard his house. He strictly
instructed all his servants not to go near the dog. Further a special attender was hired to take care of the
dog. Visitors were warned by a prominent warning sign board about this dog.
One day, a 13 year old boy playing in the neighbourhood, running after his ball got into the
house. The dog attacked him and killed him. Tony was sued for damages.
(a) Tony was not liable because the boy was a trespasser.
(b) Tony is not liable because a 13 year old boy ought to have known about the presence of
the
ferocious dog.
(c) Tony is liable of the negligence of his servant to keep watch on such a ferocious dog during
the
day time
(d) Both (a) and (b)
192.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: The occupier of a premise owes a duty of care to all his invitees and
visitors.
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FACTUAL SITUATION: Devi, who was the owner of a big home with a compound wall, constructed
an underground tank to store water. This was covered by jute bags since the work was
incomplete.
The postman who came inside to deliver a registered letter, fell into this tank and hurt himself. There
was also a box on the outside of the compound wall, where all the mail could be deposited. The
injured man filed a suit against Devi claiming compensation.
(a) Devi is not liable, because she did not invite the postman to her house.
(b) Devi is not liable, because the postman could have delivered the letter in the box on the
outside of the compound wall
(c) Devi is not liable because the postman was required to take care of himself
(d) Devi is liable because the postman came into the premises in the course of his duty.
193.
LEGAL PRICNIPLE: An assault is an attempt to do a corporeal hurt to another, coupled with an
apparent present ability and intention to do that act. A battery is the intentional and direct application of
any physical force to the person of another
A was sitting on a chair reading a book. His friend, B decided to play a practical joke on him.
Accordingly, he pulled the chair from under him, as a result of which A landed on the floor.
(a) B’s act amounts to a battery (b) B’s act amounts to an assault
(c) B’s act amounts to an assault till the time A lands on the floor.
(d) B’s act amounts to neither because there was no intention.
194.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: The owner of a land is entitled to the column of air space above the surface ad
infinitum. But, the right is restricted to such height as is necessary for the ordinary use and employment
of his land, and the structure on it. A had constructed a single-storeyed house on a corner site. He had
no intention of building an additional floor. B his neighbour, who ran an internet parlour got a hoarding
made, which protruded over A’s house at a height of around 6 feet above the terrace. A sues B for
trespass.
(a) A will succeed since B’s act amounts to trespass
(b) A will not succeed since he was anyway not planning to build an additional storey
(c) A will not succeed since the hoarding is not obstructing him
(d) A will not succeed since B has a right to erect a hoarding
195.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A contract obtained by misrepresentation is voidable at the option of the
buyer.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Anand wants to sell his house. Tina approaches him with an offer to buy
the house and Anand shows her the house. The house is not in a very good condition and visibly
requires repairs, without which it is uninhabitable. Anand does not tell anything regarding the required
repairs to be livable. Tina purchases the house for a huge consideration. Later on when she wants to
move in her things into the house to start living she realizes the heavy repairs that the house requires
urgently.
(a) Tina will not succeed because she has to be careful about what he is purchasing in all
circumstances, unless the defects are concealed and cannot be seen or has been hidden.
(b) Tina will succeed because Anand knowingly sold the house and he should have informed Tina
about the condition of the house
(c) Tina will succeed because she would never have purchased the house in case if she was told about
the status of the house.
(d) A buyer always has the option to refuse performance of his part of the contract.
196.
LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A parent is not liable for a tort committed buy his/her child except when the
parent affords the child an opportunity to commit the tort.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A mother takes her 7 year old son with her to market. On reaching the
market she shuts the car ignition, pulls the handbrake and puts the car in gear. She leaves her son in the
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car only. The child starts playing with the car, he releases the brakes and pushes the gear lever to
neutral. As a result, the car starts moving down the road and runs down a pedestrian.
(a) The Mother is not liable because she took great care to ensure that the car would remain
stationery.
(b) The Mother is liable because she was negligent.
(c) The son is liable because his action caused accident.
(d) The pedestrian is liable as he should have been careful while walking on the road.
197.
PRINCIPLE: Nothing is an offence merely by reason of its being done with the knowledge that it is
likely to cause harm, if it be done without any criminal intention to cause harm and in good faith for the
purpose preventing or avoiding other harm to person or property.
FACTS: Three persons Mr. William, Mr. Stephen and Mr. Roke along with Mr. Rankin, a boy,
between 17 and 18 years of age, the crew of a registered English vessel, were cast away in a storm on
be
the high seas. They had no supply of water and food. On the 18th day they thought that it would
better to kill the boy who was in a critical condition, so that their lives could be save. Stephen and
William agreed to the act, but Roke dissented from it. William, with the consent of Stephen, went to the
boy, who was extremely weakened by famine put a knife into his throat and killed him. The three men
fed upon the body and blood of the boy for four days; after which the boat was picked up by a passing
vessel, and they were rescued alive. Choose the right answer.
(a) William and Stephen cannot be held liable because if the men had not fed upon the body of the boy
they would probably not have survived. So this act was done out of necessity and to save the life of
three persons.
(b) They cannot be held liable because the boy, being in a much critical condition, was likely to have
died before them.
(c) They are guilty of killing Ranking. To preserve one’s life is generally speaking a duty, but it may
be the plainest and the highest duty to sacrifice it.
(d) None of above.
198.
PRINCIPLE: (1). No title, not being a military or academic distinction, shall be conferred by the State.
(2). No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign State.
FACTS: The Government of India every year confers various awards namely, Bharat Ratna, Padma
Vibhusan, Padma Bhusan and Padma Shri. These National Awards were formally instituted in January
1954 by tow Presidential Notifications. The Presidential Notification also provide that any person
without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex, shall be eligible for these awards and also that
the decorations may be awarded posthumously. Now Mr. A challenged the validity of these National
awards and requested the court to prevent Government of India from conferring these Awards.
(a) These awards are titles within the meaning of Article 18 of the Constitution and hence
violative of Article 18.
(b) These national awards are being grossly misused and the purpose for which they were
instituted has been diluted and they are granted to persons who do not deserving them.
(c) The National Awards are not violative of the principle of equality as guaranteed by the
Constitution. These awards do not amount to “titles” within the meaning of Article 18 and
therefore not violative of Article 18.
(d) None of these.
199.
PRINCIPLE: The consideration or object of an agreement is lawful, unless – it is forbidden by law;
or is of such a nature that, if permitted, it would defeat the provisions
of any law; or is fraudulent; or
involves or implies injury to the person or property of another; or the Court regards it as immoral, or
opposed to public policy. Every agreement of which the object or consideration is unlawful is void.
FACTS: Nadeem promises Srawan to drop the prosecution which he has instituted against
Srawan for robbery, and Srawan promises to restore the value of the thins taken.
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(a) The agreement is void, as its object is unlawful.
(b) The agreement is illegal, as it is against the law
(c) The agreement is voidance and it depends on the parties to make it void
(d) The agreement is valid, as both the parties have freedom of contract.
200.
©
PRINCIPLE: Every agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person, other than a minor, is void.
FACTS: Mr. Sohail Khan died in a road accident. Two co-widows, Mrs. Sultana and Mrs. Marjina
enter into an agreement that if any of them will re-marry, would forfeit her right to her share in the
deceased husband’s property.
(a) The agreement is void because it was in restraint of marriage
(b) The agreement is not void because no restraint was imposed upon either of two widows, for remarriage
(c) The restraint was partial so agreement is valid
(d) None of the above.
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