egzamin maturalny z języka angielskiego

Transcription

EGZAMIN MATURALNY Z JĘZYKA ANGIELSKIEGO
Miejsce na naklejkę
z kodem szkoły
dysleksja
EGZAMIN MATURALNY
Z JĘZYKA ANGIELSKIEGO
Test II
POZIOM PODST
A WOWY
PODSTA
Czas pracy 120 minut
Instrukcja dla zdającego
1. Sprawdź, czy arkusz egzaminacyjny zawiera 7 stron (zadania 1–8). Ewentualny brak zgłoś przewodniczącemu zespołu nadzorującego egzamin.
2. Część pierwsza arkusza, sprawdzająca rozumienie ze słuchu, będzie trwała
około 20 minut i jest nagrana na płycie CD.
3. Pisz czytelnie. Używaj długopisu/pióra tylko z czarnym tuszem/atramentem.
4. Nie używaj korektora, a błędne zapisy wyraźnie przekreśl.
5. Pamiętaj, że zapisy w brudnopisie nie podlegają ocenie.
6. Na karcie odpowiedzi wpisz swoją datę urodzenia i PESEL. Zamaluj
pola odpowiadające cyfrom numeru PESEL. Błędne zaznaczenie otocz
kółkiem
i zaznacz właściwe*.
7. Postępuj podobnie, zaznaczając odpowiedzi w części karty przeznaczonej
dla zdającego. Tylko odpowiedzi zaznaczone na karcie będą oceniane.
Życzymy powodzenia!
2008
Wpisuje zdający
przed rozpoczęciem pracy
Wpisuje zdający
PESEL ZDAJĄCEGO
KOD ZDAJĄCEGO
Za rozwiązanie wszystkich zadań można otrzymać łącznie 50 punktów.
* Pamiętajcie, że karta odpowiedzi jest dołączona tylko podczas rzeczywistego egzaminu maturalnego.
39
Test II
POZIOM PODST
AWOWY
PODSTA
EGZAMIN PISEMNY
ROZUMIENIE ZE SŁUCHU
Zadanie 1. (5 pkt.)
Zapoznaj się z treścią zadania. Usłyszysz dwukrotnie wywiad. Na podstawie usłyszanych informacji
zdecyduj, które z podanych zdań są prawdziwe (TRUE), a które fałszywe (FALSE). Zaznacz znakiem
X odpowiednią rubrykę w tabeli. Za każdą poprawną odpowiedź otrzymasz 1 punkt.
TRUE
1.1.
This is an advertisement of a new theatre show.
1.2.
The package costs more than a theatre ticket.
1.3.
Theatre and dinner packages can be booked only on the Internet.
1.4.
It is possible to order your meal in advance.
1.5.
Restaurants are located within walking distance from the theatres.
FALSE
Zadanie 2. (5 pkt.)
Zapoznaj się z treścią zadania. Usłyszysz dwukrotnie pięć wypowiedzi na temat uczenia się języków
obcych. Na podstawie usłyszanego nagrania dobierz odpowiednie podsumowanie (A–F) do każdej wypowiedzi (2.1.–2.5.). Jedno podsumowanie podane zostało dodatkowo i nie odnosi się do żadnej wypowiedzi.
Za każdą poprawną odpowiedź otrzymasz 1 punkt.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
2.1.
Spend some time abroad.
Attend a traditional course.
Surf the web.
Try a correspondence course.
Use different authentic sources.
Find native speakers in your country.
2.2.
2.3.
2.4.
2.5.
Zadanie 3. (5 pkt.)
Zapoznaj się ze zdaniami (3.1.–3.5.). Usłyszysz dwukrotnie historię o przeżyciach chłopca w Halloween.
Z podanych odpowiedzi wybierz właściwą, zgodną z treścią tekstu. Zaznacz jedną z trzech możliwości,
zakreślając literę A, B lub C. Za każdą poprawną odpowiedź otrzymasz 1 punkt.
3.1. What was the weather like?
A. Calm.
B. Stormy.
C. Snowy.
3.2. Why did the boy get scared?
A. He heard somebody shout.
B. He saw something strange outside.
C. He didn't know where his parents were.
3.3. Where did he hide when he heard footsteps?
A. Under the blanket.
B. In the wardrobe.
C. Under the bed.
3.4. What happened before midnight?
A. He took photos of the ghost.
B. He returned to bed.
C. He fell asleep.
40
3.5. Who did the boy see that night?
A. A friend dressed as a ghost.
B. A monster living in the garden.
C. One of his parents wearing a costume.
EGZAMIN PISEMNY
Test II
POZIOM PODST
AWOWY
PODSTA
ROZUMIENIE TEKSTU CZYTANEGO
Zadanie 4. (6 pkt.)
Przeczytaj poniższy tekst. Na podstawie informacji w nim zawartych zdecyduj, które z podanych zdań są
prawdziwe (TRUE), a które fałszywe (FALSE). Zaznacz znakiem X odpowiednią rubrykę w tabeli.
The Magic Tree, a Polish TV fantasy show for children that has proved a hit around the world, has won
a prestigious Emmy award.
The Magic Tree has become the first Polish production to win an Emmy in the 35-year history of the
award. British productions have so far dominated the Children & Young People category, having won 11
awards. Canada comes in second with four and Australia third with two. Japan, France, the Netherlands
and Sweden have also fielded winning productions.
The Magic Tree was written and directed by Maleszka, 52, a screenwriter and film and theatre director. He
has made over 30 feature films and TV movies as well as five theatre productions based on his own screenplays.
Maleszka is most at home with magical stories and fantasy mixed with contemporary reality. His characters can speak cat language or have roses growing out of their heads.
The series begins when a chair made from the Magic Tree escapes from a furniture consignment. This
extraordinary object can walk, fly and grant wishes to anyone who sits on it. The chair falls on a car belonging
to a family with three kids. A carelessly spoken "wish" turns the loving parents into indifferent strangers.
They entrust the children to a scary aunt and leave the country to work abroad.
The show went into production in 2004 and has gone on to become a worldwide success. It has been sold
to dozens of countries.
A big-screen version of The Magic Tree is currently being produced. The movie has a new script. Despite
its fantasy aspects, the movie deals with the topical issue of children being abandoned by parents who go
abroad to find work. But The Magic Tree is mostly a fable of extraordinary events filled with a special
atmosphere. The shooting was finished in the summer and the movie is now in the post-production stage.
TRUE
4.1.
An Emmy award has never been won by Poland.
4.2.
The director likes making science-fiction films most.
4.3.
The plot of the series shows how magic can influence people's lives.
4.4.
The Magic Tree has already been seen by international audiences.
4.5.
The cinema version will be different from the TV series.
4.6.
The text presents the autobiography of a famous film director.
FALSE
Zadanie 5. (7 pkt.)
Przeczytaj poniższy tekst. Następnie przyporządkuj odpowiedni nagłówek (A–H) do każdego fragmentu
tekstu (5.1.–5.7.) Jeden nagłówek nie pasuje do żadnego fragmentu. Za każdą poprawną odpowiedź
otrzymasz 1 punkt.
A. Train directions
B. Journey time
C. Operation times
D. Tube fares
E. Non-stop service
F. Frequency of trains
G. Division of the network
H. The busiest periods
41
Test II
POZIOM PODST
AWOWY
PODSTA
EGZAMIN PISEMNY
Tube passenger information
There are 275 stations dotted across the city (63 in central London), so you're never far from a station. Most
underground stations have maps on the walls and assistants to help if you need it.
5.1.
Trains and platforms are described as eastbound, westbound, northbound or southbound. Trains travelling
from left to right on the tube map are eastbound, from right to left are westbound, from top to bottom are
southbound and from bottom to top are northbound. The front of the train and the platform indicator show
the train's final stop – often the last station on the line.
5.2.
London's tube system is split into 6 'zones' which appear in concentric circles. On the tube maps, central
London is zone 1 (the middle circle), and the further away you travel from central London, the higher the
zones get.
5.3.
The standard price of a single ticket is £4. Travel is cheaper in zones 3, 4, 5 and 6 than in zones 1 and 2.
However, you need to pay for all zones you travel through during your journey.
You can buy tickets, travel cards and Oyster pay-as-you-go cards at the stations or from our online shop.
5.4.
The tube doesn't run 24 hours a day. The first trains leave between 05:15 and 06:00 Monday to Saturday
and the last trains from central London leave at around midnight. On Sundays, the first trains start just after
07:00, and the last trains leave central London between 23:00 and 23:30. First and last train times vary
depending on the station, direction, and final destination.
5.5.
If you can, you should avoid using public transport during rush hours. At these times people are going to
and from work and the tube becomes extremely crowded. The morning rush hour is from about 08:00 to
09:30, and the evening one from about 17:00 to 18:30.
5.6.
How often the trains run depends on the time of day, direction, and destination. Most platforms have a screen
showing you when the next train is expected. You shouldn't have to wait more than 5 minutes for a train.
Trains usually run on time, and delays are uncommon outside rush hours.
5.7.
Times of travelling between stations vary according to the distance between them. Times between station
stops are usually 1–2 minutes in central London and 2–3 further out. To get a better idea of how long your
journey will take you and to plan your route, use our journey planner (visitbritain.transportdirect.info/visitbritain/en).
Zadanie 6. (7 pkt.)
Przeczytaj poniższy tekst. Z podanych odpowiedzi wybierz właściwą, zgodną z treścią tekstu. Zaznacz
jedną z czterech możliwości, zakreślając literę A, B, C lub D.
42
So, there we were in the sparkling new kitchen yesterday. The kids were upstairs, right above us. They
had just come back from school and were playing hide-and-seek in quite an orderly manner. You could find
them in very strange places (under the sofa or in the wardrobe), but at least there was no screaming and
quarrelling as usual.
The builders had already left a few hours ago so finally the house was quiet and peaceful and we had it
only to ourselves. Just two more days and they would finish altogether. My husband was at one end of the
room, writing the 'to-do list' for the builders which was pretty short, and pretty achievable. I was chatting to
my sister and making pasta for everyone at my new kitchen island, feeling extremely proud and happy.
Suddenly, there was a crack and a crash, and a small piece of plaster from the kitchen ceiling came down
EGZAMIN PISEMNY
Test II
POZIOM PODST
AWOWY
PODSTA
straight onto my sister's head. A moment later it was swiftly followed by another one, which landed right in
the centre of the pan of spaghetti I was preparing. Dinner was ruined but that wasn't the end of it. My
husband jumped up and pulled off any other loose bits of plaster with a paint scraper before any more fell
into the new pot of pasta.
There was no time to wait. We dialled the number we knew by heart after two months of endless construction work in our place. Luckily, our latest team of builders (and the lead guy in particular) are the
calmest people in the world. So, when they came in the evening, he rolled his eyes and said, "No problem.
We had problem with this part of the ceiling but we didn't expect it would come off; we will get a different
type of plaster and we will fix it tomorrow. We have checked the rest of the ceiling. It won't happen again."
We were not sure whether to trust them but had no choice really. We were considering taking on another
team but we would have to pay twice for the same service and decided it didn't make sense. After all, such
things do happen. We had never complained about their work so far, so there was no reason to panic.
What can you do when it's all out of your hands? You just have to look at the bright side of the matter. I was
just relieved the plaster had come off while they were still on the job, and not during, say, Christmas dinner.
Hopefully, by Christmas they'd be out. Either that, or I would have to get a bigger turkey...
6.1. The children
A. were playing in the kitchen.
B. were on the ground floor.
C. were screaming loudly.
D. were running around upstairs.
6.2. The renovation of the house
A. had already finished.
B. lasted two days.
C. was coming to an end.
D. would take no more time.
6.3. The accident happened when
A. the builders had left the house.
B. Susan and her sister were cooking.
C. Susan's husband was writing a letter.
D. the builders were still in the house.
6.4. One part of the ceiling which fell off
A. seriously injured one of the women.
B. destroyed the meal.
C. was found on a plate.
D. landed on Susan's husband's head.
6.5. The builders
A. were very irritated.
B. did not want to do the repairs.
C. promised to do the job once again.
D. could not do the repairs the next day.
6.6. Susan
A. decided to hire some other builders.
B. liked the lead builder's personality.
C. didn't want the builders to do the repairs.
D. decided not to pay the builders.
6.7. The accident happened
A. in the late afternoon.
B. at Christmas time.
C. before breakfast.
D. at the weekend.
43
Test II
POZIOM PODST
AWOWY
PODSTA
EGZAMIN PISEMNY
WYPOWIEDŹ PISEMNA
Zadanie 7. (5 pkt.)
Przystępowałeś/aś niedawno do praktycznego egzaminu na prawo jazdy. Twój angielski przyjaciel
czeka na wiadomości od Ciebie. W e-mailu do niego napisz:
• jak przebiegał egzamin,
• jak zachowywał się egzaminator,
• co sprawiło Ci największy kłopot,
• jak wynik egzaminu wpłynie na Twoje dalsze plany.
Podpisz się jako XYZ. W zadaniu nie jest określony limit słów. Oceniana jest umiejętność zwięzłego przekazu wszystkich informacji określonych w poleceniu (4 punkty) oraz poprawność językowa (1 punkt).
CZYSTOPIS
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
TREŚĆ
Liczba
punktów
44
Inf. 1
Inf. 2
Inf. 3
Inf. 4
0–1
0–1
0–1
0–1
POPRAWNOŚĆ
JĘZYKOWA
0–1
RAZEM
EGZAMIN PISEMNY
Test II
POZIOM PODST
AWOWY
PODSTA
Zadanie 8. (10 pkt.)
Wraz z grupą przyjaciół zdecydowałeś/aś się wziąć udział w projekcie ekologicznym ogłoszonym przez
jedną z organizacji międzynarodowych. Wraz ze zgłoszeniem chęci przystąpienia do projektu wysyłasz
list motywacyjny, w którym podajesz:
• temat Waszej pracy i powód, dla którego ten temat wybraliście;
• gdzie chcecie zbierać materiały i w jakiej formie zamierzacie je przedstawić;
• kto wchodzi w skład zespołu i jak zorganizujecie swoją pracę;
• jakiego wsparcia oczekujecie od organizatora projektu i jakie są Wasze nadzieje związane z uczestnictwem
w tym programie.
Pamiętaj o zachowaniu odpowiedniej formy i stylu listu. Nie umieszczaj żadnych adresów. Podpisz się jako
XYZ. Długość listu powinna wynosić od 120 do 150 słów. Oceniana jest umiejętność pełnego przekazania
informacji (4 punkty), forma (2 punkty), poprawność językowa (2 punkty) oraz bogactwo językowe (2 punkty).
Uwaga: jeśli praca będzie zawierać więcej niż 200 słów, otrzymasz za jej formę 0 punktów.
CZYSTOPIS
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
TREŚĆ
FORMA
Liczba
punktów
Inf. 1
Inf. 2
Inf. 3
Inf. 4
0–0,5–1
0–0,5–1
0–0,5–1
0–0,5–1
0–1–2
BOGACTWO POPRAWNOŚĆ
JĘZYKOWE
JĘZYKOWA
0–1–2
RAZEM
0–1–2
45
Test II
POZIOM PODST
AWOWY
PODSTA
OCENIANIE ARKUSZA
POZIOM PODSTAWOWY
Zadanie 1.
Za każde poprawne rozwiązanie przyznajemy 1 punkt. Maksimum 5 punktów.
Zadanie 1.
TRUE
FALSE
1.1.
X
1.2.
X
1.3.
X
1.4.
X
1.5.
X
Zadanie 2.
Zadanie 2.
A
B
2.1.
C
E
F
X
2.2.
X
2.3.
2.4.
D
X
X
2.5.
X
Zadanie 3.
Zadanie 3.
A
B
3.1.
X
3.2.
X
3.3.
X
3.4.
X
C
3.5.
X
Zadanie 4.
Zadanie 4.
FALSE
4.1.
X
4.2.
X
4.3.
X
4.4.
X
4.5.
X
4.6.
46
TRUE
X
EGZAMIN PISEMNY
EGZAMIN PISEMNY
Test II
POZIOM PODST
AWOWY
PODSTA
Zadanie 5.
Zadanie 5.
A
5.1.
X
B
C
D
E
F
5.2.
G
H
X
5.3.
X
5.4.
X
5.5.
X
5.6.
X
5.7.
X
Zadanie 6.
Zadanie 6.
A
B
C
6.1.
X
6.2.
6.3.
X
X
6.4.
X
6.5.
X
6.6.
6.7.
D
X
X
Zadanie 7. – krótka forma użytkowa. Maksimum 5 punktów.
Sprawdza egzaminator zgodnie z kryteriami.
Zadanie 8. – dłuższa forma użytkowa. Maksimum 10 punktów.
47
Test II
POZIOM PODST
AWOWY
PODSTA
EGZAMIN PISEMNY
TRANSKRYPCJA NAGRAŃ
POZIOM PODSTAWOWY
Zadanie 1.
Presenter: Good evening and welcome to 'London Today', the programme that lets you know what's
happening in the capital. Today we're going to talk to our guest, Sue Parks, about the West End's new
'Dine and unwind offer'. Sue, you've just tried out this new offer, can you tell our listeners what you
thought of it?
Sue: Yes, I found this great deal when I was surfing the net a few months ago. Well, I was born and
brought up in London but I'd never actually been to a West End show. So I thought "Why not!". My husband
and I were going to celebrate our 10th wedding anniversary the following month so it seemed a great idea
for a night out.
Presenter: Could you tell us a little bit more about this special offer?
Sue: Well, it includes a theatre ticket and a two-course meal in a top class restaurant. Unfortunately you
have to pay for drinks and desserts but it is still great value. Surprisingly, the cost of the 'Dine and unwind
offer' is less than you would normally pay for just a theatre ticket.
Presenter: Did you have to wait a long time to get a booking?
Sue: No, we didn't. We both work long hours so what we especially liked about the 'Dine and unwind offer'
was that we could arrange everything just days before from our own home. I booked it all up online but you
can also do it over the phone. We also looked at the menu and ordered our meal beforehand online so five
minutes after we walked into the restaurant, the food was in front of us. And, it was delicious!
Presenter: Didn't you have to rush to get to the show on time?
Sue: Not at all. All the restaurants are very close to the main West End theatres. We just had a nice walk to
the theatre and went straight to the booking office where the tickets had been held especially for us. And, of
course, we had some of the best seats.
Presenter: So, on the whole, a highly enjoyable, good-value night out.
Sue: Yes, absolutely!
Presenter: Thank you, Sue, for that recommendation! That's all for today, tomorrow we'll be talking to...
Zadanie 2.
There are many ways to learn a language. But it turns out to be a problem if you decide on it later in life.
We've asked some adult learners for their advice. These are their tips and ideas that you should bear in
mind as you plan your language learning.
Speaker 1
Learn with a teacher. In most parts of Europe there are language classes available for adults. Classes often
take place during the evening. The advantage of taking lessons with a group of other learners is that you
have friends to encourage you in your learning and a teacher to guide you according to your specific needs.
Speaker 2
There are many things you can do to reinforce what you learn on your course, such as listening to foreign
language radio stations or watching films in their original language; reading foreign newspapers and magazines is also useful.
48
Speaker 3
Don't be afraid to try out your new language whenever and wherever possible. You may be able to meet people
nearby who speak the language you're learning. You don't have to go abroad to improve your language skills.
EGZAMIN PISEMNY
Test II
POZIOM PODST
AWOWY
PODSTA
Speaker 4
Foreign travel is, of course, where you can really develop a foreign language and your new skills enable you
to make contact with the local people. See if you can plan a trip – even a short one – as something to aim for,
and when you go abroad use every chance you can to practise your skills. Generally, people are pleased to
hear you trying to speak their language and will make allowances if you don't get it exactly right.
Speaker 5
There are more and more Internet sites offering lessons in foreign languages, often with sound and pictures.
You can also brush up your writing skills by exchanging emails with someone from abroad.
Zadanie 3.
I was just a boy on that cold dark Halloween night which I remember so well. Sitting in my room I listened
to the rain pattering lightly on the window and heard thunder rumbling in the distance. I was just about to
get into bed when suddenly I heard a strange noise outside the window. I drew back the curtains and looked
out. "Is there anyone out there?" I shouted. At that very moment a lightning bolt lit up the sky, and to my
horror I saw a face looking back at me. It was terrifying, like a ghost. I wanted to shout for my dad but he and
mum had gone out to a Halloween fancy dress party. I thought about hiding under the bed but then I had
another idea. I took a blanket from the wardrobe drawer and put it over my head.
Just moments later I heard another noise. It sounded like footsteps outside the window. I looked out but
it was very dark and I couldn't see anything. I felt my way to the desk and grabbed my camera. I pointed it
towards the window and started clicking hoping to catch this creature on film. After a few minutes I listened
again but all was quiet except for the church bells ringing out midnight.
I decided to go back to bed but couldn't fall asleep. Strange thoughts of ghosts and monsters filled my
mind and every sound made me jump out of my skin. How I wished my parents were at home. Several
hours passed before I finally drifted off to sleep.
I woke up early the next morning and rushed out into the garden. Just as I thought, there were footprints
leading right up to my window. From the window they led round the house and up to the front door. Next
I cycled into town to get my film developed. What a disappointment, the photos were completely black.
I suppose in my terror I'd forgotten to put the flash on.
As I was on my way home I heard someone call out my name.
It was Pete, a friend from school. "Oh, Pete", I said. "You'll never believe what happened last night". He looked
very serious as I started telling the story. But when I mentioned the footprints in the garden, he started
to laugh. "Oh, John!" he said. "Didn't you know that our parents dressed up for the Halloween party last
night? My dad went as a monster and yours went as a ghost, they showed me a film of it this morning. They
looked great! He must have looked through your window when he came home last night."
Suddenly it all made sense and I began to feel very silly. A brave boy like me, scared to death by his very
own father. That's something I will never forget.
49
Test II
POZIOM PODST
AWOWY
PODSTA
EGZAMIN USTNY
ROZMOWY STEROWANE
Zapoznaj się z opisem trzech sytuacji. Twoim zadaniem będzie odegranie wskazanych ról.
A. Uzyskiwanie, udzielanie informacji
Wybierasz się na wycieczkę rowerową za miasto. Potrzebny jest Ci rower. Rozmawiasz z angielskimi
gospodarzami, u których mieszkasz.
• Poproś o pożyczenie roweru.
• Dowiedz się, gdzie są najlepsze trasy rowerowe w okolicy.
• Poinformuj, kiedy wrócisz i oddasz rower.
(rozmowę rozpoczyna zdający)
B. Relacjonowanie wydarzeń
W czasie pobytu w Londynie nie mogłeś/aś trafić do jednego z muzeów. Opowiedz o tym znajomemu
Anglikowi.
• Wspomnij, dlaczego chciałeś/aś odwiedzić to muzeum.
• Opisz, jak próbowałeś/aś dotrzeć na miejsce.
• Powiedz, kto udzielił Ci pomocy i w jaki sposób.
(rozmowę rozpoczyna zdający)
C. Negocjowanie
Jesteś w restauracji ze znajomym Amerykaninem, który od niedawna jest w Polsce.
• Zaproponuj mu zamówienie jakiegoś tradycyjnego polskiego dania.
• Słysząc inną propozycję, spróbuj przekonać Twojego gościa do polskiej kuchni.
• Ostatecznie zaproponuj rozwiązanie kompromisowe.
(rozmowę rozpoczyna egzaminujący)
50
EGZAMIN USTNY
Test II
POZIOM PODST
AWOWY
PODSTA
ROZMOWA NA PODSTAWIE ILUSTRACJI
Opisz poniższą ilustrację i odpowiedz na pytania egzaminującego.
Pytania do ilustracji (zamieszczone wyłącznie w zestawie dla egzaminującego):
1. What do you think the woman will do with the box?
2. What kind of problems can disabled people face every day?
51
52
z kodem szkoły
dysleksja
EGZAMIN MATURALNY
Test II
POZIOM ROZSZERZONY CZĘŚĆ I
Czas pracy 120 minut
1. Sprawdź, czy arkusz egzaminacyjny zawiera 4 strony (zadania 1–3). Ewentualny brak zgłoś przewodniczącemu zespołu nadzorującego egzamin.
3. Nie używaj korektora, a błędne zapisy wyraźnie przekreśl.
4. Pamiętaj, że zapisy w brudnopisie nie podlegają ocenie.
kółkiem
i zaznacz właściwe.
6. Wypełnij tę część karty odpowiedzi, którą koduje zdający. Nie wpisuj żadnych znaków w części przeznaczonej dla egzaminatora*.
2008
Wpisuje zdający
Wpisuje zdający
PESEL ZDAJĄCEGO
KOD ZDAJĄCEGO
Za rozwiązanie wszystkich zadań można otrzymać łącznie 23 punkty.
53
Test II
POZIOM ROZSZERZONY
EGZAMIN PISEMNY
STOSOWANIE STRUKTUR LEKSYKALNO-GRAMATYCZNYCH
Zadanie 1. (2,5 pkt.)
Uzupełnij luki (1.1.–1.5.), przekształcając wyrazy podane w nawiasach tak, aby otrzymać logiczny i gramatycznie poprawny tekst. Wymagana jest pełna poprawność ortograficzna wpisywanych fragmentów zdań.
Za każdą poprawną odpowiedź otrzymasz 0,5 punktu.
Do men and women speak the same language? Can they ever really communicate? These questions are not
1.1. .................... (REVEAL) in themselves, but since the early 1990s there has been a new surge of interest
in them. 1.2. .................... (COUNT) self-help and popular psychology books have been written portraying men
and women as alien beings and conversation between them as a catalogue of 1.3. .................... (UNDERSTAND).
Advice on how to bridge the communication gulf between the sexes has grown into a flourishing multimedia
industry. A lot of websites promote not only 1.4. .................... (VARY) books, but also seminars, residential
retreats, a telephone helpline and a dating service. The idea that men and women "speak different languages"
has itself become a dogma, treated not as a hypothesis to be investigated but as an 1.5. ....................
(QUESTION) article of faith.
Zadanie 2. (2,5 pkt.)
Przetłumacz fragmenty podane w nawiasach na język angielski tak, aby otrzymać logiczne i gramatycznie
poprawne zdania. Wymagana jest pełna poprawność gramatyczna i ortograficzna wpisywanych fragmentów zdań. Za każdą poprawną odpowiedź otrzymasz 0,5 punktu.
2.1. Who has had (najmniej pomysłów) in the group?
Who has had .................................................................... in the group?
2.2. Don't approach the dog, (dobrze)?
Don't approach the dog, ....................................................................?
2.3. The children played with fireworks, (co skończyło się) very badly.
The children played with fireworks, .................................................................... very badly.
2.4. That (siedmiometrowy stół) was really impressive.
That .................................................................... was really impressive.
2.5. The policeman wanted to know (czy spotkaliśmy) that woman before.
The policeman wanted to know .................................................................... that woman before.
54
EGZAMIN PISEMNY
Test II
POZIOM ROZSZERZONY
WYPOWIEDŹ PISEMNA
Zadanie 3. (18 pkt.)
Wypowiedz się na jeden z trzech poniższych tematów. Wypowiedź powinna zawierać od 200 do 250
słów i spełniać wszystkie wymogi typowe dla formy wskazanej w poleceniu. Zaznacz wybrany temat,
zakreślając jego numer.
1. Napisz rozprawkę, w której przedstawisz swoją opinię na temat postawy życiowej zawartej w powiedzeniu
'Practice makes perfect'.
2. Opisz wydarzenie z dzieciństwa, które kojarzy Ci się z bezpieczeństwem domu rodzinnego.
3. Napisz recenzję filmu, który ukazuje problem kary śmierci.
Uwaga: jeśli praca będzie zawierać więcej niż 300 słów, otrzymasz za jej kompozycję 0 punktów.
CZYSTOPIS
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
...............................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
55
Test II
POZIOM ROZSZERZONY
EGZAMIN PISEMNY
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
56
BOGACTWO
JĘZYKOWE
KOMPOZYCJA
TREŚĆ
POPRAWNOŚĆ
JĘZYKOWA
Poziom
A
B
C
A
B
C
A
B
C
A
B
C
Liczba
punktów
5
4–3–2
1–0
4
3–2
1–0
5
4–3–2
1–0
4
3–2
1–0
RAZEM
EGZAMIN PISEMNY
Test II
POZIOM ROZSZERZONY
OCENIANIE ARKUSZA
POZIOM ROZSZERZONY – CZĘŚĆ I
Zadanie 1.
Za każde poprawne rozwiązanie przyznajemy 0,5 punktu. Maksimum 2,5 punktu.
1.1.
1.2.
1.3.
1.4.
1.5.
revealing
Countless
misunderstandings
various
unquestionable
Wymagana jest pełna poprawność ortograficzna wpisywanych fragmentów zdań.
Zadanie 2.
Za każde poprawne rozwiązanie przyznajemy 0,5 punktu. Maksimum 2,5 punktu.
2.1.
the fewest
2.2.
2.3.
will you
which ended
ideas
2.4.
2.5.
That 7-metre-long
if we
table
had met
Wymagana jest pełna poprawność ortograficzna wpisywanych fragmentów zdań.
Zadanie 3. Maksimum 18 punktów.
57
58
z kodem szkoły
dysleksja
EGZAMIN MATURALNY
Test II
POZIOM ROZSZERZONY CZĘŚĆ II
Czas pracy 70 minut
1. Sprawdź, czy arkusz egzaminacyjny zawiera 6 stron (zadania 4–9). Ewentualny brak zgłoś przewodniczącemu zespołu nadzorującego egzamin.
2. Część pierwsza arkusza, sprawdzająca rozumienie ze słuchu, będzie trwała
około 20 minut i jest nagrana na płycie CD.
4. Nie używaj korektora.
kółkiem
i zaznacz właściwe*.
6. Postępuj podobnie, zaznaczając odpowiedzi na karcie. Tylko odpowiedzi
zaznaczone na karcie będą oceniane.
2008
Wpisuje zdający
Wpisuje zdający
PESEL ZDAJĄCEGO
KOD ZDAJĄCEGO
Za rozwiązanie wszystkich zadań można otrzymać łącznie 27 punktów.
59
Test II
POZIOM ROZSZERZONY
EGZAMIN PISEMNY
ROZUMIENIE ZE SŁUCHU
Zadanie 4. (5 pkt.)
Zapoznaj się z treścią zadania. Usłyszysz dwukrotnie komunikat radiowy. Na podstawie usłyszanych
informacji zdecyduj, które z podanych zdań są zgodne z treścią nagrania (TRUE), a które nie (FALSE).
Zaznacz znakiem X odpowiednią rubrykę w tabeli. Za każdą poprawną odpowiedź otrzymasz 1 punkt.
TRUE
4.1.
FALSE
Quinlan Private Golub is a significant investor in Central and
Eastern Europe.
4.2.
The show homes will present the interior of the basic standard.
4.3.
More and more residential developments are being established
by the company in the CEE region.
4.4.
A virtual tour of the complex is already available in one of the new
sales offices.
4.5.
On request the company organises flights over the estate.
Zadanie 5. (5 pkt.)
Zapoznaj się z treścią zadania. Usłyszysz dwukrotnie charakterystykę głównych postaci popularnego
serialu. Odpowiedz na pytania (5.1.–5.5.), dobierając właściwą postać, i wpisz odpowiednią literę (A–D)
w rubryki tabeli. Każda postać może być wybrana więcej niż raz. Za każdą poprawną odpowiedź otrzymasz 1 punkt.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lena
Tibby
Bridget
Carmen
Which character
5.1.
lost a parent at a young age?
5.2.
changes her approach to life after meeting a terminally ill person?
5.3.
feels disappointed and replaced by someone?
5.4.
falls in love with an unavailable man?
5.5.
has quite misleading looks?
Zadanie 6. (5 pkt.)
Zapoznaj się z treścią zadania. Usłyszysz dwukrotnie wspomnienia pewnej Angielki. Z podanych możliwych odpowiedzi wybierz właściwą, zgodną z treścią nagrania. Zakreśl literę A, B, C lub D.
6.1. When Ruth was 18 years old
A. she spent her holiday in Maine.
B. she was not allowed to enter the US.
C. she was refused a work permit.
D. she didn't need a visa to the US.
6.2. At Boston Airport
A. many other passengers experienced problems.
B. she was the first person in the queue.
C. she completed a visa form.
D. she wasn't concentrating enough.
60
EGZAMIN PISEMNY
Test II
POZIOM ROZSZERZONY
6.3. The immigration officers
A. questioned her longer than other passengers.
B. threatened to use their guns.
C. searched a number of passengers.
D. arrested her for lying under oath.
6.4. After the officer had found the letter
A. she told them to send her home.
B. she admitted she didn't have enough money.
C. she broke down and called her parents.
D. she asked for her lawyer's assistance.
6.5. The following year
A. she was informed officially that she had been blacklisted.
B. she was advised to cancel her journey to the US.
C. she was warned at the US airport that she was a deportee.
D. she decided not to go to the US anymore.
61
Test II
POZIOM ROZSZERZONY
EGZAMIN PISEMNY
ROZUMIENIE TEKSTU CZYTANEGO I ROZPOZNAWANIE
STRUKTUR LEKSYKALNO-GRAMATYCZNYCH
Zadanie 7. (5 pkt.)
Przeczytaj tekst, z którego usunięto pięć zdań. Wstaw zdania oznaczone literami A–F w luki (7.1.–7.5.)
tak, aby powstał spójny i logiczny tekst. Jedno zdanie nie pasuje do żadnej luki. Za każdą poprawną
odpowiedź otrzymasz 1 punkt.
Whether you are in the market for a personal loan, credit card, savings account or insurance policy, the
first thing you check is probably a best buy table. These tables on price comparison websites have revolutionised the way we buy financial services. 7.1. ............. Now it's simply a case of entering a few details
online and with a click of the mouse the best deals on the market appear on your computer screen in
seconds.
And more and more of us are finding better value deals on our financial products in this way. So you'd be
forgiven for thinking best buy tables are just these tables showing the best deals. 7.2. .............
Although price comparison sites may appear to work in the same way – you search for a particular
product and the site returns the best deals that meet your criteria – each site operates and earns revenue in
a different way. 7.3. ............. Surely the best buy deal would feature at the top of every table? So why is this
not the case?
Some sites charge commission to providers when customers click on their product in the table, some
charge commission when you apply and others only if you purchase a product. 7.4. ............. The commission
levels often vary within the same site, which means that certain products and providers get promoted over
others because of the commercial relationship these providers have with the site. It's also a similar situation
with advertising, which price comparison sites rely heavily upon.
So what does this mean for consumers? Price comparison sites provide a valuable service, helping us
shop around for financial services. 7.5. ............. The key to ensuring you always get the best deal
– whether a credit card or insurance for your pet – is to use a number of sites, backed up by some research
of your own.
A. The sites are reluctant to reveal details of the amount charged, but it's thought to be anywhere
between £30 and £120.
B. Gone are the days of visiting several providers on the high street to compare their offers.
C. Although these commercial relationships cloud the impartiality of best buy tables, the big players
certainly search a large chunk of the market.
D. This became evident when Moneywise carried out the same search across several comparison
sites, only to be presented with different sets of results.
E. However, some digging around by Moneywise reveals they may not be quite what they seem.
F. However, try to avoid relying solely on one of them.
Zadanie 8. (4 pkt.)
Przeczytaj poniższy tekst. Z podanych odpowiedzi wybierz właściwą, zgodną z treścią tekstu. Zaznacz
jedną z czterech możliwości, zakreślając literę A, B, C lub D.
62
The Tate has been given a £50m grant from the government towards the huge expansion of Tate Modern
in time for the 2012 Olympics.
A grant of this type and size is unusual: the last such one was made towards the building of the British Library.
Tate Modern is said to have been the leading exhibitor of modern art in the world and is called by some
politicians "the defining project of the millennium". "When you have something that's genuinely world class
you don't need to hold back in supporting it because of its excellence", said some MPs. It was also added
that the Olympics was the ideal opportunity to change outmoded perceptions of Britain internationally.
EGZAMIN PISEMNY
Test II
POZIOM ROZSZERZONY
The £50m will go towards a budget of £215m for the expansion of the museum. The government grant
should act as a firm symbol of the government's commitment to this amazing project and help draw in
funds from other sources.
Sir Nicholas Serota, director of the Tate, said that the remaining money was being sought largely from
private sources. He did not rule out turning to the lottery, though he added: "We had lottery money in the
first phase of our development, and obviously that is in shorter supply now than it was in the 1990s. But I am
sure we will want to talk to the lottery about what will be a huge, popular scheme".
He said he hoped that money would be raised rapidly enough to allow building to begin in 2009, so that
work is completed in 2012.
The adjoining building, designed by architects Herzog & de Meuron, will spring up out of the currently
disused side of the existing Tate Modern building. Planning permission was received for the venture last
summer.
Using the former Bankside power station's old oil tanks as a basis, the architects envisage a spectacular
aggregation of corkscrewing "boxes" rising high out of the south side of the site. In essence, the visitor who
enters Tate Modern via the ramp entrance into the Turbine Hall will be able to turn right, as well as left, as
they are obliged to do at present. Exhibition space will be increased from 9,000 to 15,000 square metres;
that does not include the Turbine Hall, which adds 5,000 square metres. Even so, said Serota, the exhibition
space will still be just less than that in Tate Modern's main international competitors, the Pompidou Centre
in Paris and the Museum of Modern Art, New York.
Serota said the expansion will mean that many works that spend much of their lives in storage will be on
display more often. At present, over a two-year period, 40% to 50% of the Tate's holdings are kept in
storage. The expansion will also mean improved education facilities and opportunities to stage performance
work and show films.
A government spokesman confirmed that the £50m grant would not be at the expense of other cultural
organisations. It was a "separate and unique project". Further capital grants to museums for the next three
years are announced today. The amount, not including the Tate grant, represents an 80% increase over the
past three years.
8.1. The Tate has received £50m because
A. it has to change its interior.
B. it is going to be one of the Olympic venues.
C. an adjoining building is going to be built.
D. the collection is to be extended.
8.2. The work on the Tate will be completed in 2012
A. if enough money is raised.
B. unless the lottery fails to provide the expected funds.
C. provided constructing begins not later than 2009.
D. on condition that planning permission is granted.
8.3. The new Tate Modern
A. will have an area of 24,000 square metres.
B. will have less space than the Pompidou Centre.
C. will have its own power station.
D. will be in the shape of a corkscrew.
8.4. After the expansion is finished
A. the museum will help promote a new image of Britain.
B. no other museums will be supported by the government.
C. no exhibits will be kept in storage.
D. education facilities could be introduced.
63
Test II
POZIOM ROZSZERZONY
EGZAMIN PISEMNY
Zadanie 9. (3 pkt.)
Przeczytaj poniższy tekst. Z podanych odpowiedzi wybierz właściwą, tak aby otrzymać logiczny i gramatycznie poprawny tekst. Zaznacz jedną z czterech możliwości, zakreślając literę A, B, C lub D.
Za każdą poprawną odpowiedź otrzymasz 0,5 punktu.
The Government has launched a five-year cancer 9.1. ............., which will raise the standard of care. It will
focus on the 9.2. ............. range of needs of patients both during and after treatment to allow their everyday
lives to be as normal as possible.
Better psychological support will 9.3. ............., along with assistance in getting back to work, financial
advice and practical and medical assistance.
The plan is backed by £370 million of investment and designed to improve NHS cancer services and make
people more 9.4. ............. of lifestyle factors.
The public will be reminded they are at risk 9.5. ............. they smoke, overeat or do too much sunbathing.
There are also plans to consult on 9.6. ............. the sale of tobacco in vending machines, reducing cigarette
displays in shops and taking a fresh look at cigarette packaging.
64
9.1.
A. advertising
B. debate
C. treatment
D. strategy
9.3.
A. provide
B. be providing
C. be provided
D. have provided
9.5.
A. unless
B. so
C. if
D. before
9.2.
A. big
B. wide
C. extended
D. large
9.4.
A. aware
B. independent
C. fond
D. free
9.6.
A. a ban
B. to ban
C. banned
D. banning
EGZAMIN PISEMNY
Test II
POZIOM ROZSZERZONY
OCENIANIE ARKUSZA
POZIOM ROZSZERZONY – CZĘŚĆ II
Zadanie 4.
Zadanie 4. TRUE
4.1.
FALSE
X
4.2.
4.3.
X
X
4.4.
X
4.5.
X
Zadanie 5.
Zadanie 5.
A
B
5.1.
C
X
5.2.
X
5.3.
X
5.4.
5.5.
D
X
X
Zadanie 6.
Zadanie 6.
A
6.1.
B
C
X
6.2.
6.3.
D
X
X
6.4.
X
6.5.
X
Zadanie 7.
Zadanie 7.
A
7.1.
B
C
D
X
7.3.
7.5.
F
X
7.2.
7.4.
E
X
X
X
65
Test II
POZIOM ROZSZERZONY
Zadanie 8.
Za każde poprawne rozwiązanie przyznajemy 1 punkt. Maksimum 4 punkty.
Zadanie 8.
A
B
C
8.1.
X
8.2.
X
8.3.
8.4.
D
X
X
Zadanie 9.
Za każde poprawne rozwiązanie przyznajemy 0,5 punktu. Maksimum 3 punkty.
Zadanie 9.
A
B
C
9.1.
X
9.2.
X
9.3.
9.4.
9.5.
9.6.
66
D
X
X
X
X
EGZAMIN PISEMNY
EGZAMIN PISEMNY
Test II
POZIOM ROZSZERZONY
TRANSKRYPCJA NAGRAŃ
POZIOM ROZSZERZONY
Zadanie 4.
Quinlan Private Golub is a joint venture between Quinlan Private – an Irish independent private client
advisory group and Golub & Company – an international real estate developer and investment company
based in Chicago. The company, which is one of the largest real estate developers in Central and Eastern
Europe, has just opened two innovative sales offices for its Oakland Park project, an exclusive residential
development located near Warsaw.
The first houses in the project will be completed by May 2008 and will include three exclusively fitted and
furnished show homes, which will be available for client viewing. "Oakland Park has recently joined our
expanding portfolio of residential developments in the CEE region, which currently includes Sunny Hill in
Prague, Budan in Budapest and several other projects under construction", said the company's managing
director, Stephen Haigh. "We are especially excited about our unique virtual reality experience presenting
Oakland Park to our clients at the Warsaw sales centre", he added. The sales offices are located in Chylice and
in Piękna Street in Warsaw and provide clients with an opportunity to discuss the details of the investment but
also offer visualisations of the development. In addition, very soon the office in Warsaw will offer a virtual
tour of the complex, allowing potential tenants to "walk" around the house and using special 3D glasses
experience the interior. The sales office also provides a multimedia presentation shown on plasma screens
giving a bird's eye view of the entire estate. The first phase of the development covers an area of 32 hectares
and will offer 36 homes in seven designs of one- and two-storey layouts, as well as detached and semi-detached options.
Zadanie 5.
The Sisterhood of the Travelling Pants by Ann Brashares presents four virtual "sisters": Lena, Tibby,
Bridget and Carmen. They find a pair of pants that fit all four, even though they are all different sizes. To
keep in touch with each other during their summer vacation they pass the pants around. When each girl
wears the pants, she gets an insight into her life and receives the strength to change it.
A. Lena is a beautiful, quiet, and shy artist of Greek heritage. She has a younger sister, Effie. The author
based Lena on the Greek myth of Artemis, the proud, boy-hating goddess of the hunt who, when
spotted bathing by a suitor, turned the young man into a stag. Lena is nearly always judged by her
extravagant appearance. When she goes to Greece, to visit her grandparents for the first time, she
meets Kostos, a family friend. At first she dislikes him because of the attention he is showing her,
convinced she is only receiving it due to her exterior attractiveness. Later on however, she falls in
love with him, and he with her.
B. Tibby is the rebellious daughter of former radicals. She is extremely interested in film-making. She
lives with her parents and two younger siblings, Nicky and Katherine. She feels misplaced in her
surroundings (feeling that she belongs to her parents' "old" life, while they are starting a new one
with her siblings) and has developed a very skeptical outlook on life. During summertime, she works
at a local supermarket. At her job she soon meets twelve-year-old Bailey, who suffers from leukemia.
Tibby initially wants nothing to do with Bailey, but soon finds her world turned upside down by him.
Bailey teaches Tibby that everyone has a little 'loser' in them, and how to find the sun behind the
clouds, an outlook that is totally unfamiliar to sarcastic Tibby.
C. Bridget is the bold, energetic, athletic soccer star. She is the daughter of a southern belle and former
European history professor. When Bridget was about twelve, her mother committed suicide, and Bridget
still hasn't quite recovered from the drama, which triggered most of her self-destructive behaviour.
Bridget has a twin brother named Perry. During the summer she stays at a soccer camp where she meets
soccer coach Eric. Though it is forbidden for them to intermingle socially, she becomes obsessed by
him, determined to make him hers. Throughout the summer she keeps seeking him out relentlessly. She
learns, however, that thinking you want something and actually getting it aren't necessarily the same.
D. Carmen is a sensitive, caring and dramatic half-Puerto Rican girl with an explosive temper. Her
parents are divorced, and she lives with her mother. During the summer she goes to stay with her
father in South Carolina, excitedly looking forward to spending quality time with him and doing
father-daughter things. Her hopes are soon shattered when she finds out that not only has her father
found a new girlfriend, but they are about to be married, and father's fiancée brings along children of
her own into the marriage. Carmen flies back home to discover that running away from problems
isn't always the best decision, especially not when comes to family matters.
67
Test II
POZIOM ROZSZERZONY
EGZAMIN PISEMNY
Zadanie 6.
I couldn't have looked more innocent when I landed at Boston airport. I was an 18-year-old student and
had paid for a flight to spend my summer holidays in Maine, looking after the children of a family on the
coast. I'd filled in my visa on the plane. The purpose of my visit? Well, I wasn't stupid. Yes, I was going to be
earning pocket money, but the family had told me it wasn't necessary to get a work permit. I was on holiday.
That's what it felt like. I ticked the box marked VACATION.
Jet-lagged and disoriented, I queued at immigration. Person after person handed over their passport and
visa and was ushered through. My mind was on other things. I needed to catch a Greyhound bus to Portland and was worrying about finding the bus depot and changing money.
It was my turn. I smiled at the man behind the desk. He smiled back and went through my papers. "Yes, it's
my first time in America", I said. "I'm very excited, yes". He began to ask more questions. "Who are these
people you are staying with? How do you know them? How much money do you have for six weeks?".
I answered all his questions and handed over my bundle of travellers' cheques and a credit card. He barely
looked at them. I remember him staring at me intently, without blinking. Then he picked up his phone.
A man with a gun in his belt arrived. I was taken to a side area where he started to question me. He didn't
smile. "How do you know this family? What are you going to be doing for six weeks? How can you afford to
stay in America for that long?". I answered calmly, "I'm staying in their house so I won't need much spending
money. They're friends of the family". For the first time I started to feel afraid. The questions went on and on.
"We want to search your luggage", he said, and called for an armed escort to take me through the airport
to the luggage area. As he took out the contents of my bag, he found my diary and, in it, a letter. He read it
once, looked at me, and read it again. He seemed to straighten up, almost to rub his hands with pleasure.
"You've lied to a US immigration officer. Do you have any idea of the seriousness of that?". I couldn't speak.
I was terrified. The letter was to my mum from friends who lived in the same part of America. It said: "We're
so glad Ruth will be working in Maine this summer. We'd love to meet up with her".
The questions started again, but this time I had to stand up with my right hand in the air and promise to tell
the "whole truth, nothing but the truth", etc. "How many children are there in this family?". I couldn't remember, but was now terrified of lying under oath. "Four. No, maybe five. I'm not quite sure", I mumbled. Then he
dropped the bombshell. "You can't work illegally in America, you'll have to go home on the next plane".
I started to cry and couldn't stop. After a while he agreed to let me make some phone calls. I called my
parents, but there was nothing they could do at 3 am in England. So I called the family in Maine. They said
they could get a lawyer to the airport the following morning. It was 9 pm. When I asked if I could stay the
night, he got angry. "Have you not listened to me? You are not allowed on US soil. You are being sent home".
I felt desperately embarrassed when I had to tell everyone I was back. To this day I can't work out why
I was stopped. The following December I tried to go to America again, to visit a friend in New York. I'd been
assured that I hadn't been blacklisted, but at Birmingham airport the friendly check-in steward told me that,
with my passport, I'd get turned back as soon as I landed. I was on the computers as a deportee. I cancelled
my trip. That was 12 years ago. I've travelled to lots of amazing places since, but still haven't been to
America. I'd love to get there one day.
68
EGZAMIN USTNY
Test II
POZIOM ROZSZERZONY
ROZMOWA NA PODSTAWIE MATERIAŁU STYMULUJĄCEGO
Przeanalizuj przedstawiony materiał. Przygotuj się do jego prezentacji i rozmowy z egzaminującym na temat:
• różnych sposobów dotarcia do klienta przez producentów reklam;
• pozytywnego i negatywnego wpływu reklam na życie człowieka.
Eight top sources of information about new products
(according to a recent survey)
1. TV commercials
2. radio spots
3. Internet spam
4. newspaper/magazine adverts
5. street billboards
6. direct mail
7. leaflets
8. commercial presentations
Pytania do materiału stymulującego (zamieszczone wyłącznie w zestawie dla egzaminującego):
1. Could you present the material with reference to its main idea?
2. How do the adverts presented in the material affect the look of the city?
3. Which sources shown in the table do you find the most appealing to your age group? Why?
4. What do companies take into account to choose the best sites for placing advertisements?
5. Can you imagine the world without advertising? Would it be any better?
69
Test II
POZIOM ROZSZERZONY
EGZAMIN USTNY
PREZENTACJA TEMATU I DYSKUSJA
Zapoznaj się z podanymi tematami. Wybierz jeden i przygotuj się do jego prezentacji oraz
dyskusji z egzaminującym.
1. There are many people who would never eat anything coming from a once living animal. Do you think
they do this more for moral or health reasons? Justify your opinion.
2. School should be a safe and friendly place for all students. Unfortunately, the phenomenon of 'peer
pressure' can make it difficult. Discuss the problem.
70

egzamin maturalny z języka angielskiego

Transcription

Similar documents

writing bank - Studio BEST

emlreaemlrea

Clothes - VocApp

materiał diagnostyczny z języka angielskiego

Bieżący numer gazetki redagują uczennice klasy IB i III B

KAUNOS - DALYAN " Turecka Amazonka" Kaunos zostało założone

Jan Brzechwa — poeta dziecięcej radości

Parish Rectory and Office Parish School and

St. Ladislaus Parish - Chicago

The Shrine Church of Saint Stanislaus Bishop

ROZDZIAŁ 1. CZŁOWIEK